2013年9月1日星期日

Certification Nortel de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 922-109, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 922-109
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Communications Server 1000 Rls.6.0 BARS/NARS)
Questions et réponses: 34 Q&As

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NO.1 544-3333 not complete?
A.AC1 Access Code was not dialed
B.NXX 544 is not provisioned in the customer's database
C.3333 is Denied under the SDRR programming
D.AC2 Access Code was not dialed
Answer:B

Nortel   certification 922-109   922-109   922-109

NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button. Consider a customer's dialing plan and programming shown in the exhibit.
Assuming all required Route List Indexes have been programmed, why will the station user's dialed call of

NO.3 Click on the Exhibit button. Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR
programming would allow a user at to be able to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other
1-900 based number?
A.Table 1
B.Table 2
C.Table 3
D.Table 4
Answer:A

Nortel   certification 922-109   922-109 examen   922-109   922-109

NO.4 Click on the Exhibit buttons. Given the customer's programmed database shown in the exhibits and
where AC1 = 9, which RLI will the call complete when a station user dials 9-814-666-3434?
A.RLI 2
B.RLI 3
C.RLI 4
D.RLI 9
E.call will not complete as dialed
Answer:E

Nortel   922-109   922-109 examen

NO.5 Click on the Exhibit button. A customer's dialing requirements, listed below, require that all station users
assigned an NCOS of 3 and Class of Service of Conditionally Toll Denied (CTD) be able to place toll calls
from the United States to Australia. Australia Country Code: 61 NCOS of 3 has an FRL of 3 Expensive
Routers are not being used With reference to the exhibit, which table will allow all station users to be able
to place these toll calls?
A.Provisioning Table A
B.Provisioning Table B
C.Provisioning Table C
D.Provisioning Table D
Answer:B

Nortel examen   922-109   922-109

NO.6 With Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0, Zone Based Dialing is supported for both public and private
dial and numbering plans for on-net calls. Which statements best describe Zone Based Dialing? (Choose
two.)
A.For outgoing trunk calls, CLID is converted to E.164 format when DIALPLAN is configured as PUB, for
PRV type - CLID remains as is.
B.On-net Calls are routed using each CS 1000 site dial plan database and are routed to the remote
system to process.
C.Private and Public (E.164) dial plans and features are not retained. Zone Based Dialing uses the
Flexible Dial Plan information to route network-wide.
D.A new Zone type, Numbering Zones, provides a user interface to configure the parameters for:
Zone-based Parameters, Flexible Dial Plan, and Direct Inward Dial number.
Answer:A D

Nortel   922-109 examen   922-109 examen   922-109   certification 922-109   922-109

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NO0-002 dernières questions d'examen certification Nokia et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: NO0-002
Nom d'Examen: Nokia (Nokia Security Administrator )
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 'What is correct of DNS and hostfiles on IPSO (Choose all that apply):
A. The hostfile is located in /etc/resolv.conf
B. Can use a hostfile if DNS is disabled
C. Checkpoint uses when retrieving policy with Checkpoint Policy Provider
D. A hostname must be an FQDN
E. Required for Checkpoint Licencing
Answer: A, B, D, E

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen

NO.2 What ICLID command will show the version of the OS:
A. Show running config
B. Copy run start
C. Show version
D. Fw Ver
Answer: C

Nokia   certification NO0-002   NO0-002   certification NO0-002   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002

NO.3 What are invalid commands in the boot manager (Choose one):
A. Boot
B. Set-defaults
C. Ls
D. setRAID
E. setenv
Answer: D

certification Nokia   certification NO0-002   certification NO0-002

NO.4 Misuse is accepted as non-attack activity from inside the company itself:
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

Nokia   certification NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen

NO.5 You want to live messages in the log file. What command would you use via clish
(Choose one):
A. Vi -e /var/log/messages
B. Tail -200 /var/db/messages
C. Tail - t /var/log/messages |more
D. Fw log -nft
E. Tail -f /var/log/messages
Answer: E

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen
Tail -f views messages in real-time. Fw log views the Firewall connection logs in
real-time

NO.6 You can no longer gain access to your Nokia firewall via secure
communications. What command will give you access and reset http:
A. Voyager -e 0 80
B. Set voyager ssl-level 0
C. Apachd -0 httpd.conf
D. Set Httpd -r -s
Answer: A, B

certification Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.7 What commands can display interface statistics (Choose one):
A. Ifconfig -a (iclid)
B. Ipconfig -a (clish)
C. Show interface (clish)
D. Ifconfig -a (clish)
E. Show interface (iclid)
Answer: D, E

certification Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002   certification NO0-002

NO.8 When using voyager what will make permanent changes after a reboot (Choose
one):
A. Clicking apply
B. Clicking apply and then save
C. Saving changes from advanced fw config
D. Clicking apply and rebooting the NAP
Answer: B

Nokia   NO0-002   certification NO0-002   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002
Clicking apply only saves changes to the running configuration. Which are overwritten at
startup by /config/db/inital

NO.9 User UID of 0 will give:
A. Admin permissions of root on the machine
B. Backup user permissions on the enforcement module
C. Monitor user permissions
Answer: A

Nokia   certification NO0-002   NO0-002   certification NO0-002
Setting the UID of 0 from the Voyager or the CLI will give the same machine
permissions as the root user on a Nokia IPSO device

NO.10 What command will allow you to view the current connections table (Choose two):
A. fw tab -t connections -s
B. fwconn -i
C. fwtable -i
D. cpconntab -t
Answer: A, C

Nokia examen   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002   certification NO0-002

NO.11 To what location/directory does Voyager make changes
(Choose one):
A. /config/db
B. /conf/
C. /var/conf
D. /var/admin
Answer: A

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen

NO.12 What is not true of DNS on IPSO with Checkpoint NG (Choose one):
A. Checkpoint needs this in case of domain usage in policy
B. Reduces the number of hostname file assignments (less IP's required to be entered
manually)
C. Requires least one host entry of the machine itself, for Checkpoint
D. DNS must be enabled at startup for the NAP to function correctly
Answer: D

Nokia examen   certification NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.13 At what value must the TTL for a VRRP packet be set to:
A. 250
B. 255
C. 10
D. 100
Answer: B

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen

NO.14 What are the correct duplex settings. Which gives the more complete answer.
A. Console - Half Duplex and Full Duplex for a Serial connection
B. Cat6 Always full duplex
C. Serial always full duplex
D. Full Duplex - Switch and Half Duplex - Hub
Answer: D

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002 examen
The most correct answer in this case would be Full Duplex for a switch, Half Duplex for
a hub

NO.15 What are the advantages of an external syslog server Vs data log files (Choose
three):
A. External backup of logs in case of malicious activity
B. Guaranteed delivery of logs
C. Multiple indexing and searching of logs
D. Ability to see more information and select what outputs including internal facility and
severity fields?
E. Allows a user to see Object ID
Answer: A,C,D

Nokia   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen
Incorrect answers:
B - There is no guarantee of delivery. The NAP could be down, or the syslog daemon
failed.
E - You will not see Object ID's. What you would be able to see is the remote device IP
and hostname.

NO.16 Commands to terminate an ICLID session are:
A. Close
B. Exit
C. Stop
D. Quit
Answer: B, D

Nokia examen   certification NO0-002   certification NO0-002

NO.17 What is the location of the hosts file on IPSO (Choose one):
A. /var
B. /var/config
C. /etc/hosts
Answer: C

certification Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002 examen

NO.18 The correct switch for single user mode from Boot manager on an IP440 is:
A. -s
B. Boot-p
C. b-f
D. -singlemode
Answer: A

certification Nokia   NO0-002 examen   NO0-002   NO0-002   certification NO0-002

NO.19 The Default priority for VRRP:
A. 100
B. 10
C. 110
D. 1
Answer: A

Nokia examen   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.20 What is the correct flow of data on a NAP. Consider there is a fresh installation of
Checkpoint NG installed (Choose the best answer):
A. Wire - Ethernet Driver - FWrulebase - Routing- NAT- Ethernet Driver -Wire
B. Wire - Ethernet Driver -FW rulebase&NAT - Routing- FW1- Ethernet Driver- Wire
C. Wire - FW Rulebase - Routing - NAT - Ethernet Driver - Wire
D. Wire - FW1rulebase - NAT - Routing - Ethernet Driver - Wire
Answer: B

certification Nokia   NO0-002 examen   certification NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002   certification NO0-002

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Dernières Network Appliance NS0-102 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: NS0-102
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (NetApp(ASAP) Accredited Storage Architect Professional)
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

NS0-102 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/NS0-102.html

NO.1 Which feature of the NearStore VTL solution enables it to useup to 50% fewer physical tapes than other
VTLs?
A. shadow tapes
B. tape smart sizing
C. self tuning
D. tape compressor
Answer: B

certification Network Appliance   certification NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen   certification NS0-102

NO.2 Which three requirements do NetApp core data storage systems provide to ensure patient health care
data is compliant with health care regulations? (Choose three.)
A. archival
B. security
C. disaster recovery
D. high availability
E. high performance
Answer: ABC

Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102

NO.3 Which two Data ONTAP products or features benefit a customer running an Oracle decision support
system on Linux? (Choose two.)
A. CIFS
B. FlexVol
C. SnapValidator
D. Virtual Local Disks
Answer: BC

Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102

NO.4 Which two NetApp products can be used in a customer's existing third-party Exchange storage
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. ReplicatorX
C. SnapManager for Exchange
D. Operations Manager
Answer: AB

certification Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen

NO.5 Your customer wants to run a database on a NetApp storage array where they already have home
directories.
In the event of low system resources, which NetApp product can ensure that the database receives the
majority of the storage array resources?
A. FlexClone
B. FlexShare
C. SnapManager for Oracle
D. FlexCache
Answer: B

Network Appliance   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102   certification NS0-102

NO.6 Which two statements are true about SnapRestore? (Choose two.)
A. After you use SnapRestore to revert to a selected Snapshot copy, you cannot undo the reversion.
B. After you use SnapRestore to recover a file, the restored file remains read-only.
C. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a single file.
D. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a qtree and its contents.
Answer: AC

Network Appliance examen   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen

NO.7 Which two protocol groups are supported natively on NetApp storage? (Choose two.)
A. NAS protocols (CIFS, NFS)
B. SAN protocols (ISCSI, FCP)
C. streaming protocols (RTP, RTSP)
D. messaging protocols (imap4, pop3)
Answer: AB

Network Appliance   certification NS0-102   NS0-102 examen

NO.8 Which two NetApp replication products support heterogeneous file service environments? (Choose
two.)
A. Virtual File Manager
B. Open Systems SnapVault
C. SyncMirror
D. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102

NO.9 Within the NetApp Manageability Software Family, which products does the Application Suite contain?
A. Protection Manager, Virtual File Manager, SAN Manager
B. SnapDrive for Windows, SnapDrive for UNIX, ApplianceWatch
C. Operations Manager, File Storage Resource Manager, CommandCentral Storage
D. SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, SnapManager for Exchange
Answer: D

Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102

NO.10 Which two products/functions from NetApp are NOT supported on the V-Series platform? (Choose
two.)
A. SnapLock Compliance
B. RAID-DP
C. FlexVol
D. SnapLock Enterprise
E. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

Network Appliance   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102 examen   certification NS0-102   certification NS0-102   NS0-102

NO.11 What is Tech OnTap from NetApp?
A. a weekly technical podcast
B. a monthly e-newsletter
C. a monthly Webcast by a NetApp specialist
D. an online knowledgebase for Data ONTAP
Answer: B

certification Network Appliance   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102   certification NS0-102

NO.12 SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, and SnapManager for Exchange are all part
of which NetApp Manageability Software suite?
A. Data Suite
B. Server Suite
C. Storage Suite
D. Application Suite
Answer: D

certification Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen

NO.13 In a SnapManager for Exchange opportunity, which two additional software components can help you
differentiate and grow NetApp value as compared to competing solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. SnapVault
C. VFM
D. SnapValidator
Answer: AB

Network Appliance   certification NS0-102   certification NS0-102

NO.14 What are two features that NetApp DataFort has that Microsoft's free EFS does not? (Choose two.)
A. FIPS hardware key security
B. CryptoShred
C. CryptoLock
D. SAN user-aware authentication
Answer: AB

Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102

NO.15 Which capabilities does NetApp ONTAP GX provide to achieve high performance for render and
animation server farms?
A. N-Way Clustering and Global File System
B. Stretch Fabric MetroCluster and WAFL
C. Clustering with SnapMirror Sync
D. MetroCluster and RAID-DP
Answer: A

Network Appliance   certification NS0-102   certification NS0-102

NO.16 Which three statements about SnapDrive for Windows are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is the foundation for SnapManager for SQL.
B. It provides NTFS-consistent Snapshot copies.
C. It simplifies LUN management in a Windows environment.
D. It simplifies CIFS management in a Windows environment.
E. It requires Active Directory to function.
Answer: ABC

Network Appliance   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102

NO.17 What is a function of NetApp FlexClone technology?
A. It allows copies of database data sets with no additional space usage.
B. It shrinks volumes and LUNs.
C. It compresses databases.
D. It validates every block written by the database to the storage.
Answer: A

Network Appliance   certification NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen

NO.18 What is a vFiler?
A. a virtual instance of a NetApp Storage System created via MultiStore
B. a controller running Data ONTAP that can front-end third-party storage
C. a simulated version of Data ONTAP that runs on Linux
D. a NetApp Disk-to-Disk virtual tape solution
Answer: A

certification Network Appliance   NS0-102   NS0-102   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102

NO.19 Regulations call for semi-conductor manufacturers to maintain design data in reference form over
extended periods.
Which NetApp solution offers this capability?
A. SnapVault
B. Open System SnapVault
C. SnapLock
D. SnapMirror
Answer: C

Network Appliance examen   NS0-102   certification NS0-102   NS0-102

NO.20 Which two benefits would a customer enjoy after implementing SnapManager for Oracle into their
Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)
A. reduced recovery time objective
B. transparent database migration
C. reduced database copy time
D. reduced mirrored database footprint
Answer: AC

Network Appliance   NS0-102 examen   NS0-102

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Avaya 3100 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 3100
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one
administered telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office
telephone and one outside cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to "Yes" in order to
use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin.
Which command do you use to verify the field settings?
A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding
Answer: B

Avaya   3100   3100 examen   3100

NO.2 There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?
A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA
is for customers.
C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA
provides access to day-to-day administration functions.
D. Old hardware and software (Pre - 5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and
software (5.x and later) is administered using ASA.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   3100   3100   3100 examen

NO.3 A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application
will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to "point" to
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension,
you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was
used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user's information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the
security code field is.
With reference to the scenario described in the exhibit, which action should you take to ensure that
the user can use the IP SoftPhone?
A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.
Answer: A

Avaya examen   3100   3100   3100

NO.4 Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI).
Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose
three)
A. The backup function creates two complete files on the internal hardware drive.
B. The backup function can create a file on a network device using protocols: SCP , SFTP , or FTP .
C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the
backup file.
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   certification 3100   certification 3100   3100

NO.5 Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit.
Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group
50?
A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes
Answer: B

Avaya   3100   3100   3100

NO.6 You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media
Gateway and a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and
MM71 in the slot V2, and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?
A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)
Answer: D

Avaya   3100   3100   certification 3100   certification 3100

NO.7 You want a user's station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only.
Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user' station, In COR11
Set COR-to COR calling permission = 'n' for all except COR 10.
Assign COR to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user's station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user's station.
In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = 'n' for all except.
Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user's station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 6104
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

Avaya   6104   6104   6104   6104   6104

NO.2 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

Avaya   6104 examen   6104

NO.4 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6104   6104 examen

NO.5 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

certification Avaya   6104   6104   6104 examen

NO.6 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6104   6104

NO.8 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

Avaya   6104 examen   6104

NO.9 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3107
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3107   3107   3107   3107

NO.2 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

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NO.3 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

Avaya   3107 examen   3107   3107

NO.4 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 3107   3107   3107

NO.5 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

Avaya   3107 examen   3107   3107 examen

NO.6 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

Avaya   3107   3107   certification 3107

NO.8 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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2013年8月31日星期六

RDCR08201 dernières questions d'examen certification Business-Objects et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: RDCR08201
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level One)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.3 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.4 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.5 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

Business-Objects examen   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.6 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

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NO.7 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.9 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

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NO.10 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.11 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201 examen   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.13 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.15 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

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NO.16 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

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NO.17 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.18 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

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NO.19 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.20 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

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NO.21 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.22 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

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NO.23 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

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NO.24 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

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NO.25 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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NO.26 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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NO.27 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.28 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

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NO.29 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

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NO.30 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

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