résoudre des questions au sujet des questions d'examen IBM pour vous: 七月 2013

2013年7月31日星期三

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Code d'Examen: 070-410J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 (070-410日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-410J

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 (70-410日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-404

Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (TS: System Center Service Manager 2010, Configuring (available in 2010))

Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 あなたのネットワークは、Windows Server 2012 を実行している Server1 という名前の
サーバーが含まれています。Server1 は、Print と Document Services サーバー役割を装置して
おきます。あなたは、ネットワークに新しい印刷デバ゗スを接続します。
マーケテゖング部門と営業部門は、印刷デバ゗スを使用します。両方の部のユーザーにネッ
トワーク印刷装置に印刷する能力を提供する必要があります。
解決案により、印刷するために待ち行列に入れられる複数の文書がある場合、販売ユーザー
からの文書がマーケテゖング? ユーザーから文書の前に印刷することを確認する必要があり
ます。
あなたは Server1 で何をすべきですか。
A. 2 台のプリンターを加える。各プリンターの優先順位と各々のプリンターのセキュリテゖ
設定を修正する。
B. 2 台のプリンターを加えて、プリンタプーリングを設定する。
C. 1 台のプリンターを加えて、プリンタプーリングを設定する。
D. 1 台のプリンターを加える。プリンタの優先順位とセキュリテゖ設定を修正する。
Answer: A

certification Microsoft   70-410J examen   70-410J examen
Explanation:
A. You gain no benefits just from setting a priority to a printer. You need to set at least two different
logical
printers for the same physical printer to take advantage of this option.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc738090(v=ws.10).aspx

NO.2 あなたのネットワークは、Windows Server2012 を実行している Server1 という名前の
サーバーが含まれています。 Server1 は、 Hyper-V サーバー役割を装置しておきます。 Server1
は、VM1 、VM2 、VM3 と VM4 という名前をつけられる 4 台のバーチャル? マシンのホストを
つとめます。
VM3 は、ゕプリケーションをテストするのに用いられます。
あなたは、Server1 にクロックを同期することから VM3 を防ぐ必要があります。
あなたは何を設定する必要がありますか。
A. NUMA トポロジー
B. リソース制御
C. リソースメーター
D. バーチャル? マシン Chimney
E. VLAN ID
F. プロセッサー互換性
G. 起動順序
H. 自動開始ゕクション
I. 統合サービス
J. ポートミラーリング
K. シングルルート I / O 仮想化
Answer: I

Microsoft   70-410J   certification 70-410J
Explanation:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/ 2008 / 08 / 29/backing-up-hyper-v-virtual-machines.
aspx

NO.3 あなたは、Windows Server2012 を実行している Server1 というサーバーがあります。
あなたは Server1 の゗メージを作成することを計画します。 Server1 で゗ンストールされて
いないすべてのサーバーの役割のソースフゔ゗ルを削除する必要があります。
どのツールを使うべきでしょうか。
A. servermanagercmd.exe
B. imagex.exe
C. dism.exe
D. ocsetup.exe
Answer: C

certification Microsoft   70-410J   70-410J   70-410J   70-410J

NO.4 あなたのネットワークは、Active Directory フォレストが含まれています。フォレスト
contoso.com という名前の単一のドメ゗ンが含まれています。ドメ゗ンには、4 つのドメ゗
ンコントローラが含まれています。次のテーブルの中で示されるように、ドメ゗ンコントロ
ーラーは構成されます。
あなたは、contoso.com ドメ゗ンに DC5 という名前の新しいドメ゗ンコントローラを展開す
ることを計画します。あなたは、どのドメ゗ンコントローラが DC5 がドメ゗ンコントロー
ラに正常に昇格できることを確実にするためにオンラ゗ンでなければならないかを識別す
る必要があります。
あなたはどちらのドメ゗ンコントローラを特定する必要がありますか。
A. DC1
B. DC2
C. DC3
D. DC4
Answer: C

Microsoft   certification 70-410J   70-410J

NO.5 ネットワークが contoso.com という Active Directory ドメ゗ンが含まれています。すべ
てのクラ゗ゕントコンピュータゕカウントは、 AllComputers という名前の組織単位（OU）に
あります。クラ゗ゕント? コンピュータは、Windows 7 か Windows 8 を実行します。あなた
は、 GP1 という名前のグループポリシーオブジェクト（GPO）を作成します。 AllComputers OU
に GP1 をリンクします。
あなたは、 GP1 が 8GB 以上のメモリを備えているコンピュータだけにあてはまることを確認
する必要があります。
あなたは何を設定する必要がありますか。
A. AllComputers のセキュリテゖ設定
B. GP1 のセキュリテゖ設定
C. GP1 の WMI フゖルタ
D. AllComputers 用ブロックの継承オプション
Answer: C

Microsoft   70-410J   70-410J   70-410J

NO.6 ネットワークが contoso.com という Active Directory ドメ゗ンが含まれています。ドメ
゗ンは、Server1 と Server2 という名前の 2 つのサーバーを含みます。
Server1 には、 Windows Server2012 を実行します。 erver2 には、 Windows Server 2008 R2 Service
Pack 1 （SP1 ）を実行し、 DHCP Server のサーバー役割を装置しておきます。あなたは、 Server1
で DHCP コンソールを使用して Server2 に上で DHCP を管理する必要があります。
まず何をすべきでしょうか。
A. Server2 の上のサーバー? マネージャから、Windows リモート管理を可能にする。
B. Server2 の上のコマンド? プロンプトから、winrm.exe を実行する。
C. Server1 の上のサーバー? マネージャから、機能を゗ンストールする。
D. Server1 の上の Microsoft 管理コンソールから、スナップ゗ンを加える。
Answer: A

Microsoft   70-410J examen   70-410J   certification 70-410J   certification 70-410J

NO.7 ネットワークが adatum.com と contoso.com という名前の 2 つの Active Directory フォレ
ストが含まれています。両方のフォレストに複数のドメ゗ンが含まれています。双方向の信
頼関係は、フォレストの間に存在します。
contoso.com ドメ゗ンは、 Group1 という名前のドメ゗ンローカルセキュリテゖグループが含
まれています。Group1 は contoso\user1 と adatum\user1 を含みます。あなたは、Group1 が
contoso.com ドメ゗ンからユーザーのみを含むことができることを確認する必要がありま
す。
あなたはどちらの 3 つのゕクションを実行する必要がありますか。
答えるために、解答エリゕにゕクションのリストから 3 つのゕクションを移動し、正しい順
序でそれらを整理してください。
Select and Place:
Answer:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755692(v=ws.10).aspx

NO.8 ネットワークが contoso.com という Active Directory ドメ゗ンが含まれています。ドメ
゗ンは DC5 という名前のドメ゗ンコントローラを含みます。DC5 は、Windows Server2012
の Server Core ゗ンストールを持っています。
あなたは手動で DC5 から Active Directory を解除する必要があります。どのツールを使うべ
きでしょうか。
A. Remove-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. dsamain.exe コマンド
C. ntdsutil.exe コマンド
D. Remove-ADComputer cmdlet
Answer: C

Microsoft   70-410J   70-410J examen
Explanation:
A. Removes Roles and Features to remove DC use Uninstall-addsdomaincontroller B.Exposes Active
Directory data that is stored in a snapshot or backup as a Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
(LDAP) server
C. Manually removes a domain controller
D. Removes AD computer object
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee662310.aspx
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/ 216498
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee617250.aspx

NO.9 ネットワークが contoso.com という Active Directory ドメ゗ンが含まれています。あな
たの会社は夏の間に 500 人の臨時従業員を雇います。
人事部は、臨時従業員のリストを含んでいる Microsoft Excel ドキュメントをあなたに与えま
す。 500 人の臨時従業員のためのユーザゕカウントの生成を自動化する必要があります。
あなたはどのツールを使うべきでしょうか。
A. Add-Member コマンドレット
B. ADSI 編集
C. csvde.exe コマンド
D. Active Directory ユーザーとコンピュータ
Answer: C

Microsoft   70-410J examen   certification 70-410J   70-410J   70-410J

NO.10 あなたのネットワークは contoso.com という名前をつけられる Active Directory 領域を
含みます。すべてのドメ゗ンコントローラは、Windows Server2012 を実行しています。
あなたは、すべてのコンピュータ上のローカル管理者ゕカウントが L_Admin にリネームされ
ていることを確認する必要があります。
あなたはどちらのグループポリシー設定を変更する必要がありますか。
A. セキュリテゖ? オプション
B. ユーザー権利の割り当て
C. 制限されたグループ
D. 優先権
Answer: A

certification Microsoft   70-410J   70-410J examen   70-410J examen
Explanation:
A. Allows configuration of computers
B. User Rights Assignment policies determines which users or groups have logon rights or privileges
on the computer
C. Restricted Groups defines what member or groups should exist as part of a group
D. With Preferences, local and domain accounts can be added to a local group without affecting the
existing members of the group
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc747484(v=ws.10).aspx
In Group Policy Object Editor, click Computer Configuration, click Windows Settings, click Security
Settings,
click Local Policies, and then click Security Options.
In the details pane, double-click Accounts: Rename administrator account.

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NO.1 Which of the following commands will NOT update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt?
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie "s/1/2/" /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n "Hello" >>/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A

certification Lpi   certification 117-101   117-101   117-101

NO.2 What command line redirection characters instruct the shell to read from the current input source until a
specific word, on a separate line and without any trailing spaces, is reached?
A. <<
B. <|
C. !<
D. &<
Answer: A

Lpi   117-101 examen   117-101   certification 117-101

NO.3 Which directory contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Answer: D

Lpi   117-101 examen   117-101   certification 117-101

NO.4 Which command will convert all tab characters in a file to spaces and print that to standard out?
A. convert
B. expand
C. retab
D. untab
Answer: B

Lpi examen   117-101   117-101 examen

NO.5 Once a shell variable has been created, how can the variable be removed from the environment?
A. VAR=
B. set -d VAR
C. set -u VAR
D. unset VAR
Answer: D

Lpi   117-101   certification 117-101

NO.6 To change the priority of a running process, you use the ____ command. (Specify command only
with no options.) Answer:
A. RENICE,/USR/BIN/RENICE
Answer: A

Lpi   certification 117-101   certification 117-101   117-101

NO.7 When in Normal mode in vi, which command character will insert a blank line below the current cursor
position and place the insert cursor at the beginning of the new line?
A. a
B. i
C. n
D. o
Answer: D

certification Lpi   117-101   117-101 examen

NO.8 What is the purpose of the Bash built-in export command?
A. To allow disks to be mounted remotely.
B. To automate the export of variables for subsequently executed commands.
C. To make the command history available to sub-shells.
D. To run a command as a process in a sub-shell.
E. To save variable settings for future shell invocations.
Answer: B

certification Lpi   117-101 examen   117-101   117-101

NO.9 The priority of any process can range from -20 to ________. (Provide only the numerical value) Answer:
A. 19,+19
Answer: A

Lpi   117-101   117-101

NO.10 Which of the following commands will NOT execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/runme.sh?
A. source /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
B.. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
D. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
E. run /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
Answer: E

Lpi examen   certification 117-101   117-101   certification 117-101   117-101   117-101

NO.11 You've downloaded an image file of a boot floppy disk to your hard drive. What is the best utility to
create a boot floppy from the disk image? (Specify a single command without options.) Answer:
A. DD,/BIN/DD
Answer: A

certification Lpi   117-101 examen   117-101

NO.12 Which of the following commands will send output from the program myapp to both standard output
(stdout) and the file file1.log?
A. cat < myapp | cat > file1.log
B. myapp 0>&1 | cat > file1.log
C. myapp | cat > file1.log
D. myapp | tee file1.log
E. tee myapp file1.log
Answer: D

Lpi examen   117-101 examen   117-101   117-101 examen   117-101   certification 117-101

NO.13 Which command will show you the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf -
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf -
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Answer: B

Lpi   117-101 examen   117-101   certification 117-101

NO.14 In order to use the output of ls to overwrite a file called bazz, which of the following command lines
would you use?
A. ls > bazz
B. ls >& bazz
C. ls &> bazz
D. ls >> bazz
Answer: A

Lpi   117-101   117-101   117-101   117-101   117-101

NO.15 Which of the following sed commands will replace all instances of the string foo with the string foobar
changing the file file1.txt in place.?
A. sed 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt
B. sed 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt > file1.txt
C. sed 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt | file1.txt
D. sed -i 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt
E. sed -i 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt > file1.txt
Answer: D

certification Lpi   certification 117-101   117-101   117-101 examen   117-101   certification 117-101

NO.16 Which of the following is a limitation of the cut command?
A. The cut command can only select output by field position.
B. The cut command cannot reorder fields.
C. The cut command only works on ASCII text.
D. The cut command will always print one line of output for every line of input.
Answer: B

Lpi examen   certification 117-101   117-101 examen   117-101

NO.17 In bash, inserting 2>&1 after a command redirects
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
Answer: D

certification Lpi   117-101   117-101   117-101   117-101 examen

NO.18 Which signal is sent by the kill command by default?
A. HUP(1)
B. QUIT(3)
C. KILL(9)
D. TERM(15)
Answer: D

Lpi   117-101 examen   certification 117-101   117-101

NO.19 To ensure that a running process continues to execute after you log out, the process should be started
with what command?
A. live
B. nohup
C. saferun
D. sh
Answer: B

certification Lpi   117-101   117-101

NO.20 When in Normal mode in vi, which command character can be used to begin a reverse search of the
text?
A. ?
B. /
C. F
D. r
Answer: A

Lpi examen   117-101   117-101   117-101 examen

Juniper JN0-311 JN0-341 JN0-201 JN0-120 JN0-521 JN0-541 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JN0-311

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (WX, Associate(JNCIA-WX))

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-341

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (ER.Associate(JNCIA-ER))

Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-201

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-120

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.e(jncia-e))

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-521

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV))

Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-541

Nom d'Examen: Juniper (IDP, Associate(JNCIA-IDP))

Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

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NO.1 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.3 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.4 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.6 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.8 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.10 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.12 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.14 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.15 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.16 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.17 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-BA1

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis)

Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-008

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-007

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)

Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario 1 A computerised system is being created to monitor the life support system on board a
submarine. It monitors air quality, water supplies and temperature. This system will be supplied and
maintained by SubsInc. SubsInc uses the V-model for software development and conducts four levels of
testing, from unit through to operational and site acceptance testing. Two key risks identified for the air
quality system are: 1. If the percentage of oxygen in the air falls too low, personnel may suffocate 2. If the
concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic. To address these risks,
the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements: R1)Oxygen must be
replaced as it is consumed. R2)Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air. These requirements must
be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents. You are a newly recruited
test manager. A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is
a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A.The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor
air temperatures.
B.SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C.Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D.Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. A serious issue has arisen with emails arriving at the wrong
destinations. This is an intermittent problem, and seems to occur only at peak loading times. Which of the
following reviews would you recommend to address this issue?
A.A walkthrough of the requirement specification, to check for errors.
B.A management review of defects logged and cleared to see if defects are being addressed correctly.
C.A technical review of the industry standard routing protocols to see if they have inaccuracies in them.
D.An inspection of the code for this part of the functionality to try to localise the defective parts of the code.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Scenario 2 Your organisation is a large media services corporation (MSC). MSC uses Agile
development, within a Scrum framework. Here, the iterations are referred to as Sprints. For each Sprint, a
set of user-stories is defined, built, and tested. The user-stories are typically 1-2 lines long, indicating
what the customer wants the system to do. MSC is in the process of updating its website to meet the
recently introduced accessibility rules for websites. Accessibility means the availability of a system
suitable to members of the public with, for example, visual or hearing difficulties. It has been decided to
start with two requirements, as its first 2 Sprints: 1)Presentation of content with clear headings, short
sentences, text versions always available. 2)Consistent navigation through the website. You are the test
manager and there are four developers and two testers. You have all worked together previously, and are
very experienced in MSCs products. Although the accessibility rules are new to you and the team, you
have all attended a workshop where they were explained. Which of the following are product risks and
which are project risks? a.The navigation through some parts of the website may need to be different from
others. b.Sprint 1 may not be completed on time, leading to a delay to the start of Sprint 2. c.Text versions
of images may not always be possible. d.There may be a need to buy a capture-replay tool for regression
testing. e.A key member of the team may leave before the Sprints have been completed.
A.a, b and c are product risks, d and e are project risks.
B.a and c are products risks, b, d and e are project risks.
C.b, c and e are product risks, a and d are project risks.
D.a, d and e are product risks, b and c are project risks.
Answer:B

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NO.4 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following would be applicable as part of a test policy
for testing these types of systems? a.Systems must be tested for compliance to industry standard routing
protocols. b.Testing for the latest upgrade will require testing of increased network traffic of 100%.
c.Testing for the fix will require the use of dynamic analysis tools. d.Releases will not be made if systems
have any high priority defects outstanding.
A.a and b.
B.a and d.
C.b and c.
D.b and d.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following best describes a testing challenge of the
application domain of the routers described?
A.Testing that the receivers PC can store emails routed to it.
B.Testing that large organisations can scan incoming files routed to them for viruses.
C.Testing that packets are delivered by the routers in the required timescales.
D.Testing that files can be sent in any language.
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: 000-274

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 000-839

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Unified Process v7.0)

Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-734

Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 Advanced DB Administrator for Linux,UNIX,and Windows)

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Code d'Examen: 000-733

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified Application Developer-DB29)

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Code d'Examen: 000-649

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rarional Software Architect)

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Code d'Examen: 000-646

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Manual Tester)

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-253

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V6.1, Core Administration)

Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following restrictions pertains to embedded SQL external routines?
A. Environment variables with names that start with 'DB2' are not allowed.
B. Executing statements or commands that are connection related is not allowed.
C. Environment variable values that were set before the DB2 database manager is started are not
available.
D. When returning result sets from external nested stored procedures, a cursor cannot be opened with
the same name onmultiple nesting levels.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following table and view definitions: CREATE TABLE city ( cityid INT GENERATED
ALWAYS AS IDENTITY , city_name CHAR(10), state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN
('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));CREATE VIEW city_view AS ( SELECT city_name||','||state_code AS fullname
FROM city WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL')); and the following trigger definition:CREATE
TRIGGER city_viewInput INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view REFERENCING NEW AS nFOR EACH
ROW MODE DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC DECLARE delim INT;SET delim = LOCATE(',', n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code) VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1),
SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));END; If the following SQL statments are executed:INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ; INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL'); INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI'); INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX'); INSERT INTO
city_view VALUES('Denver,CO'); How many rows will be returned by the following query: SELECT *
FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the minimum privilege required to run a User Defined Function (UDF)?
A. CALL
B. EXECUTE
C. SYSCTRL
D. SYSMAINT
Answer: B

IBM   000-733   000-733   000-733

NO.4 Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B

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NO.5 If the following code is executed in the order shown:conDB2 As
DB2ConnectionconDB2.ConnectionString =
"Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"conDB2.Open() Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the
local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the
local database catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Table EMPLOYEE contains the following rows: EMPNO FIRSTNME LASTNAME WORKDEPT
000010.CHRISTINE HAAS A00 000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON B01 000030 SALLY KWAN C01 The
isolation level for Application 1 is set to CS and autocommit is disabled. The isolation level for Application
2 is set to CS and the autocommit is enabled. The following statements are executed in sequence:
Application 1:
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno OPEN C1 FETCH C1
FETCH C1 Application 2:
UPDATE employee SET lastname = 'MILLFORD' WHERE empno = '000020' Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 2 runs with autocommit enabled so no row level locks are
necessary for the update.
B. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 1 holds a row level lock that is compatible with the lock
required by Application 2.
C. The UPDATE fails because Application 1 holds a row level read lock that is in conflict with the lock
required by Application 2.C.
D. The UPDATE fails because the row level locks held by Application 1 have been escalated to table lock
so updates by other connections are disallowed.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-733   000-733

NO.7 After installing the DB2 Express-C 9 it was discovered that the Development Workbench was not
available. What
was the reason for that?
A. It must be installed separately.
B. It is not supported with DB2 Express-C 9.
C. Since it is a licensed tool, it must be purchased from IBM.
D. Review the DB2 installation log for errors. Reinstall DB2 Express-C 9.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following SQL statements demonstrates the correct usage of a parameter marker?
A. SELECT ? FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
B. SELECT [] FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
C. SELECT CAST(? AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
D. SELECT CAST([] AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
=====
==== ======
======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN
D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:CREATE TRIGGER track_chgsAFTER UPDATE OF salary, name,
empno ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE
DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO changes SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP FROM
ntable; END; After executing the following SQL statements:DELETE FROM changes; UPDATE emp SET
deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95'; INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90', 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;UPDATE emp SET salary = salary +
1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;What value will be returned by this query?SELECT count(*) FROM
changes
A. 2
B. 3 C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.10 Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C

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NO.11 An SQL procedure has been developed with several inline SQL PL statements encapsulated in a
dynamic compound SQL statement. The procedure had been tested and performed well. After making a
change to the last SQL statement the procedure not only failed to complete, but did not produce output
from any statements which were not modified. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
A. The dynamic compound SQL is atomic.
B. The procedure doesn't have any savepoints.
C. The procedure has not been correctly re-cataloged.
D. The dynamic compound SQL individual statements are logically dependent on each other.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is a characteristic of an application that uses a Distributed Unit of Work
(DUOW)?
A. A single transaction can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
B. Multiple transactions can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
C. A single transaction can read and/or modify data stored across multiple database servers.
D. Multiple transactions can read and/or modify data stored on multiple database servers provided each
transaction only accesses a single server.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given the following table definition:CREATE TABLE staff ( id SMALLINT NOT NULL, name
VARCHAR(9), dept SMALLINT, job CHAR(5)) Assuming that the following statements execute
successfully:Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand() cmdStaff.CommandText =
"SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)" Which of the following is the correct way to provide a
value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value ="Mgr"
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-733   000-733   000-733

NO.14 Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a database connection
to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-733   000-733

NO.15 A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a
syntax errorexception is thrown. Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for this syntax
error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A

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NO.16 After executing the following SQL statements: CREATE TABLE tab1 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1)); CREATE TABLE tab2 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1), FOREIGN KEY (col1)
REFERENCES tab1(col1) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); INSERT INTO tab1
VALUES(1, 'A'); INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, 'B'); INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, 'A'); INSERT INTO
tab2 VALUES(2, 'B'); UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2 = 'B';
What values will be returned by the following SQL query?SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab1 A.COL1 COL2
==== ==== 2 'B'
A. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'B'
B. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A'
C. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 1 'A' 2 'B'
D. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A' 3 'B'
Answer: B

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NO.17 An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following query:SELECT
t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1 If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX database and
table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the followingDB2 object types must the identifier
T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B

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NO.18 A table named ACTIVITY.LOG was created by executing the following statement:CREATE TABLE
activity.log (event VARCHAR(128), date DATE) Then, a stored procedure named ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT
was created by executing the following statement: CREATE PROCEDURE activity.logEvent(IN stmtType
CHAR(1)) LANGUAGE SQLMainBody: BEGIN DECLARE sqlerrm VARCHAR(256) DEFAULT '';
DECLARE ErrorIndicator CHAR(1) DEFAULT 'N';
SQLStmt: BEGIN
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
BEGIN
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END;
IF stmtType = 'I' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Insert Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'U' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Update Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'D' THEN I
NSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Delete Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSE
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END IF;
END SQLStmt;
IF ErrorIndicator = 'Y' THEN
SIGNAL SQLSTATE '70000' SET message_text = 'Could not update activity log.';
END IF;
END MainBody
User USER1 has the authority to access/manipulate data in the ACTIVITY.LOG table as well as to invoke
the
procedure ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT. If user USER1 executes the following commands:
CONNECT TO sample USER user1 USING ibmdb2;
DELETE FROM activity.log;
CALL activity.logEvent('i'); What will be the results?
A. The string "Insert Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
B. The string "Update Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
C. The string "Delete Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
D. The error message 'SQL0438N Application raised error with diagnostic text: "Could not update activity
log.".SQLSTATE=70000' will be generated.
Answer: D

IBM   000-733 examen   000-733

NO.19 Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a fix to be applied.
Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the table with a
Cursor Stability isolation level. What would be the best course of action to improve the system's
concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT operation.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-733   000-733   000-733

NO.20 Which of the following is a SQL stored procedure which will return a resultset containing ID, NAME,
DEPT and JOB values out of the STAFF table?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set() LANGUAGE SQL BEGIN SELECT id, name, dept, job FROM
staff; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN SELECT id, name,
dept, job FROM staff; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN C1; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set()
LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN c1; END
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-017

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Foundations of Tivoli process automation engine V7.1)

Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-015

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation)

Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-023

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes)

Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-047

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis)

Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A.Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B.Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C.Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D.Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E.Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider's engineer to obtain access to an end users account.
Answer:C E

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NO.2 Where can the most thorough searches on support be performed?
A.anywhere with a search dialog
B.top header of any IBM.com web page
C.always from a specific product support page
D.IBM Software Support Home page IBM.com/software/support
Answer:D

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NO.3 When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best search
strategy for finding targeted information?
A.Select just one product and only one keyword.
B.Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C.Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D.Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A.Latest test fixes released by development.
B.Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C.Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D.List of new features still under development for each product.
E.Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer:C E

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NO.5 Which two statements are true regarding Support Provider Level 1 Customer Support? (Choose
two.)
A.Level 1 Support is responsible for taking the first support call from a Customer (during normal business
hours, Monday - Friday in line with IBMs standard 5x8 support).
B.Level 1 Support is responsible for testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating
the release of said software to clients that have purchased it from IBM.
C.Level 1 Support is responsible for incorporating and testing any program fix provided by Level 3
Support (as appropriate), and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention,
or other notice of restriction to the End User.
D.Level 1 Support is responsible logging all calls in an electronic call management system capable of
opening an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in electronic format
historic information relating to a problem, from the first Call through to the resolution of the problem.
E.Level 1 Support is responsible for logging all calls in an XML, Excel or Lotus 123 spread sheet so that
Level 2 support can open an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in
electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first call through to the resolution of
the problem.
Answer:C D

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Code d'Examen: LOT-702

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 System Administration Update)

Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-670

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Technical Support V1)

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-600

Nom d'Examen: IBM (System z Solution Sales V4)

Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-543

Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9.7 Application Development)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-971

Nom d'Examen: IBM (System i Administrator V5.07.11)

Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 For which two database objects can an ALIAS be created? (Choose two.)
A. schema
B. trigger
C. sequence
D. module
Answer: CD

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NO.2 A database contains two tables with the same definition and authorities: PRODUCTION.SALESDATA
and TEST.SALESDATA. The PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table contains business-critical information
that is constantly changing; the TEST.SALESDATA table contains a snapshot of the
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table. Business rules require that applications under development access
the TEST.SALESDATA table until ready for deployment. Once an application is deployed, it accesses the
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table.
Which object can be used to simplify switching between the TEST.SALESDATA and
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA tables without having to re-code the application?
A. trigger
B. procedure
C. alias
D. sequence
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true of an application that only uses static SQL?
A. The authorization ID of program creator is used to qualify explicitly qualified table references on a
DROP statement.
B. Static SQL uses SQLDA to determine the number of rows successfully fetched on a FETCH statement.
C. The authorization ID of application creator is used to qualify implicitly qualified view references on an
UPDATE statement.
D. The authorization ID of application invoker used by DB2 to perform authorization checking of an
embedded OPEN statement during execution.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An application must insert values into a column that has a TIMESTAMP data type.
What is a valid string representation of a TIMESTAMP?
A. 2009.08.07.12.22.22.0000
B. 2009-08-07 12:22:22.0000
C. 07/08/2009-12:22:22:0000
D. 07-08-2009 12.22.22.0000
Answer: B

IBM   000-543 examen   000-543 examen   000-543   000-543

NO.5 A database contains a table and a view declared as shown below:
CREATE TABLE s1.t1 ( c1 INTEGER, c2 CHAR(20) );
CREATE VIEW s1.v1 AS SELECT * FROM s1.t1;
A system administrator successfully executes the following code:
GRANT CONNECT, IMPLICIT_SCHEMA ON DATABASE TO user1;
GRANT INSERT ON TABLE s1.t1 TO user1;
GRANT CONTROL ON s1.v1 TO user1;
Which SQL statement does user USER1 have privileges to execute?
A. UPDATE s1.t1 SET c1 = 2 WHERE c1 IS NULL
B. CREATE VIEW user1.v2 AS SELECT * FROM s1.v1
C. CREATE PUBLIC ALIAS a1 FOR s1.v1
D. SELECT * FROM s1.t1 WHERE c2 < 100
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will return multiple result
sets. While developing a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the stored
procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, 'CALL multiResults()');
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?
A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more result sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row in the result
set.
Answer: A

IBM   000-543 examen   000-543 examen

NO.7 The table shown below contains a large number of financial transactions:
CREATE TABLE webstore.transactions (
transaction_id INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
order_date TIMESTAMP NOT NULL,
shipped_date TIMESTAMP,
customer_id INTEGER NOT NULL,
shipping_info XML NOT NULL,
billing_info XML NOT NULL,
invoice XML NOT NULL )
Only members of the AUDIT_TEAM group have SELECT privilege on the WEBSTORE.TRANSACTIONS
table. For appropriate supply-chain management, members of the INVENTORY_CONTROL group need
to see the INVOICE document for each transaction that has a NULL SHIPPED_DATE, but are restricted
from seeing any shipping or billing information.
Which database object can a member of the AUDIT_TEAM group create to enable the
INVENTORY_CONTROL group to access the information needed from WEBSTORE.TRANSACTIONS?
A. alias
B. sequence
C. trigger
D. view
Answer: D

IBM   000-543 examen   000-543

NO.8 In a query, which clause can reference a CLOB data type?
A. an ORDER BY clause
B. a GROUP BY clause
C. a WHERE clause
D. a DISTINCT clause
Answer: C

IBM   000-543   000-543 examen   000-543 examen   000-543 examen

NO.9 Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an application?
A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The table shown below exists in the database:
CREATE TABLE team.workitems ( priority INTEGER, last_update TIMESTAMP, details XML )
User USER1 has CREATEIN authority on the TEAM schema and can SELECT from the
TEAM.WORKITEMS table. An SQL routine is created that performs a positioned update using a cursor
declared as shown below:
DECLARE c_workitem CURSOR FOR SELECT priority, last_update FROM team.workitems FOR
UPDATE;
Which additional privilege is required?
A. EXECUTE privilege on TEAM schema
B. ALTER privilege on TEAM.WORKITEMS table
C. BINDADD privilege on TEAM schema
D. UPDATE privilege on TEAM.WORKITEMS table
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE FUNCTION deptemployees (idept VARCHAR(3))
RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
firstname VARCHAR(12),
lastname VARCHAR(15))
LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA
NO EXTERNAL ACTION
DETERMINISTIC
RETURN
SELECT empno, firstnme, lastname
FROM employee
WHERE workdept = deptemployees.idept;
Referring to the exhibit, what contains the proper way to invoke the DEPTEMPLOYEES() user-defined
function to return all of the employees that work in department D11?
A. SELECT * FROM TABLE(deptemployees('D11'))
B. SELECT * FROM deptemployees('D11')
C. SELECT * FROM deptemployees('D11') AS D11dept
D. SELECT * FROM TABLE(deptemployees('D11')) AS D11dept
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-543   000-543   000-543 examen   000-543 examen

NO.12 Which object can be created to group together related procedures and user-defined functions that are
used for tax calculations?
A. collection
B. module
C. routine
D. routine space
Answer: B

IBM   000-543   000-543   000-543

NO.13 You have set your data types as CHAR(10), VARCHAR(20). Given the operation shown below:
CHAR(10) UNION VARCHAR(20)
What will be the final data type?
A. CHAR(200)
B. VARCHAR(30)
C. VARCHAR(20)
D. CHAR(30)
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-543   000-543 examen

NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
'<storeinfo sid="1">
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>');
Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn('STORE.INFO')/storeinfo
let $items := $store/items/fruit, $count := fn:count($items)
return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?
A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
Answer: D

IBM   000-543   000-543 examen   000-543

NO.15 The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two statements can be
used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)
A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET
Answer: BC

certification IBM   certification 000-543   000-543 examen   000-543

NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE s1.mytab (
col1 INTEGER GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY,
col2 INTEGER,
col3 INTEGER,
CHECK (col1+col3 < 500)
)
CREATE VARIABLE s1.var1 INTEGER DEFAULT (99)
CREATE FUNCTION s1.add100 (p1 INT, p2 INT)
RETURNS INTEGER
LANGUAGE SQL
DETERMINISTIC
NOT FENCED
BEGIN
SET p1= p2+100;
RETURN p1;
END
Given the table, variable, and function definitions shown in the exhibit, which two statements contain a
valid invocation of the add100 function? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT col1, outcol=add100(col2,col3) FROM mytab
B. SET var1 = ABS(add100(1,99))
C. SELECT col1, add100(col2,col3) AS outcol FROM mytab
D. SELECT outcol.* FROM TABLE(add100(col2,col3)) AS outcol
Answer: BC

IBM   000-543 examen   000-543   000-543

NO.17 Which SQL procedure will retrieve all the rows from table T1 and make those rows available to the
invoker as a result set?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
SELECT * FROM t1
B. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT * FROM t1;
OPEN c1;
END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
RETURN (SELECT * FROM t1)
D. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM t1;
RETURN c1;
END
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-543   certification 000-543   certification 000-543   certification 000-543

NO.18 Which object can be invoked on a single invocation to return both output parameters and a result set
back to the invoking application?
A. procedure
B. module
C. table function
D. method
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-543 examen   000-543 examen   000-543

NO.19 An existing table has the definition shown below:
CREATE TABLE hr.employees (
empid INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
deptno INTEGER,
authid VARCHAR(255),
salary DECIMAL (10,2),
commission DECIMAL (5,3) DEFAULT 0,
benefits XML )
Only members of the HR_ADMIN group have privilege to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE from
the HR.EMPLOYEES table. A Web-based application is under development that connects to the
database with a user's AUTHID and enables a user to see their record. No other records are visible.
Which type of database object can be created by a member of the HR_ADMIN that provides the
necessary information without changing the privileges on the HR.EMPLOYEES table?
A. trigger
B. view
C. alias
D. index
Answer: B

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NO.20 User USER1 successfully creates a table USER1.TABLE1 and successfully creates a package
USER1.PKG1 for an application containing the SQL shown below:
EXEC SQL UPDATE user1.table1 SET col1 = :hvar1 WHERE col1 IS NULL
Assuming user USER2 can connect to the database, but has no other relevant authorities, which
command must user USER1 issue to permit user USER2 to run the application?
A. GRANT ALTER ON TABLE user1.table1 TO USER user2
B. GRANT EXECUTE ON PACKAGE user1.pkg1 TO USER user2
C. GRANT UPDATE ON TABLE user1.table1 TO USER user2
D. GRANT BIND ON PACKAGE user1.pkg1 TO USER user2
Answer: B

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