2013年9月29日星期日

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Code d'Examen: PgMP
Nom d'Examen: PMI (Program Management Professional (PgMP))
Questions et réponses: 342 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the program manager for your organization. Part of your role as the program manager is to
train John, a new program manager, on the program processes within a program. John is confused as to
when the program team can be acquired in the program management lifecycle.
When will the program team be acquired for a program?
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Initiation
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are the program manager for the SRQ Program. You have rejected several change requests for
the program scope. What must you do with the rejected change requests?
A. Communicate why the change request was rejected and record the results in the lessons learned
documentation for your program.
B. Inform the stakeholders that their change requests have been rejected.
C. Communicate the change request status to the stakeholders and record the results of the change
request in the change register.
D. Inform the stakeholders why their change requests have been rejected.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are the program manager of the NHQ Program. You are working with your program team to ensure
that the work in the program is done accurately and according to scope. You are also reviewing the team
inspection process that will need to be done to ensure that the work is being done according to the scope.
If the work is found to be defective it will need to be corrected before the program customers can inspect
the work. What process are you completing to ensure that the work is done accordingly to scope?
A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Quality assurance
D. Planning
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the program manager for your organization. You and your program team have been creating
and transferring the program benefits to operations as feasible in your program execution.
The process of delivering the program's benefits describes what process in program
management?
A. Quality control
B. Benefits management
C. Direct and manage program execution
D. Quality assurance
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are the program manager of the GHY Program in your organization. It has come to your attention
that some of the project managers in your program are adding time to each project activity in an effort to
pad their durations in case some event happens in their project that will cause delays. What principle
should you share with these project managers that counterattack the concept of padding activities with
additional time?
A. Parkinson's Law
B. Law of Diminishing Returns
C. 80/20 Law
D. Pareto's Law
Answer: A

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NO.6 What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and
documenting changes created to the project scope?
A. Project Management Information System
B. Integrated Change Control
C. Scope Verification
D. Configuration Management System
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your program has been selected and its program charter is now being created. The program charter
defines all of the following characteristics except for which one?
A. Program constraints
B. Program scope
C. High-level objectives for the program
D. Project scope statement for all projects within the program
Answer: D

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NO.8 Eric is the project manager of the NQQ Project and has hired the ZAS Corporation to complete part of
the project work for Eric's organization. Due to a change request the ZAS Corporation is no longer
needed on the project even though they have completed nearly all of the project work. Is Eric's
organization liable to pay the ZAS Corporation for the work they have completed so far on the project?
A. It depends on what the outcome of a lawsuit will determine.
B. No, the ZAS Corporation did not complete all of the work.
C. It depends on what the termination clause of the contract stipulates.
D. Yes, the ZAS Corporation did not choose to terminate the contract work.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are the program manager for your organization. Management has asked you to create a document
that will capture the stakeholders concerns, perceived threats, and specific objectives about the program
and its projects. What document is management asking you to create in this instance?
A. Requirements document
B. Project charter
C. Business case
D. Scope statement
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are program manager for the HYH Program. Your program governance is requiring you to use
earned value management to predict how closely your program is tracking to the cost and schedule
baselines and to predict overall program performance. Which earned value management formula can you
use to predict how much more will need to be invested in the program based on current program
performance?
A. EV/AC
B. EV/PV
C. BAC/CPI
D. EAC-AC
Answer: D

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NO.11 What analysis type could you use in a program to compare the positive stakeholders and their position,
power, and influence over your program to the same variable components of the negative stakeholders in
your program?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Monte Carlo simulation
D. Force field analysis
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your company and a competing company have created a teaming agreement for an opportunity.
Through this team agreement you and your competitor can complete a major program for a client.
This is, technically, a risk response for both organizations. What type of risk response are you dealing with
in this instance?
A. Teaming
B. Exploiting
C. Accepting
D. Sharing
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are the program manager of the BHG Program. One of the projects in your program will be using
new materials that are somewhat untested. You are worried that there may be delays and waste because
the project team is unaware of how to accurately use these materials. You elect to send the people that
will be using the new materials through training on how to complete their project work. You also allow
them to purchase some of the materials to experiment on their use before the actual project work is to be
done. You want to ensure that mistakes do not enter into the project. What type of action have you
provided in this scenario?
A. This is an example of a preventive action.
B. This is an example of team development.
C. This is an example of quality assurance.
D. This is an example of a corrective action.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the present value of a program that will be worth $3,567,000 if it lasts for six years and the rate
of return is five percent?
A. $1,550,850
B. $3,532,000
C. $2,502,750
D. $2,661,750
Answer: D

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NO.15 Donna is the project manager for her organization. She is preparing a plan to manage changes to the
project should changes be requested. Her change management plan defines the process for
documenting, tracking, and determining if the changes should be approved or declined. What system is
considered the parent of the change control system documented in Donna's plan?
A. Quality Management System
B. Change Control System
C. Project Management Information System
D. Integrated Change Control System
Answer: C

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NO.16 Olive is the program manager for her organization. She has created a request for proposal for a large
portion of her program. In this work to be procured she has set several requirements for the vendors to
participate. The chief among these requirements is a vendor must have at least four licensed electricians
in his team. This requirement for four licensed electricians is an example of which one of the following
terms?
A. Screening system
B. Scoring model
C. Vendor analysis requirements
D. Evaluation criteria
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are the program manager for your organization. When a project in your program is completed,
who will need to sign the certificate of completion?
A. The project manager
B. The program customer
C. The program stakeholders
D. The project management team
Answer: B

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NO.18 Where are negative risks recorded?
A. Negative risk register
B. Risk management plan
C. Risk register
D. Issues log
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are the program manager for your organization. Your program team has 43 people that all need to
be monitored and controlled. You would like to create a standardized report that you can use to monitor,
control, and record the performance of each staff member in your program. What type of report can you
create that will help you track your staff and their performance?
A. Performance reports
B. Staff variance reports
C. Exceptions report
D. Lessons learned
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are the program manager for your organization. You're currently working with the program director,
Nancy Holmes, to define a new program and the benefits the program should create. Of the following,
which is the best definition of a benefit a program creates?
A. A benefit is an outcome of the constituent projects within a program.
B. A benefit is a project and program deliverables that the organization may use immediately.
C. A benefit is a deliverable of a program or project that is worth more than the cost to create the
deliverable.
D. A benefit is an outcome of actions and behaviors that provides utility to stakeholders.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the formula to determine earned value (EV) for a program.?
A. Percent complete times percent remaining in the program
B. Percent completes time the program cost estimate
C. Percent complete times the program budget at completion
D. Percent complete times the program cost of labor and materials
Answer: C

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NO.22 Harriet is the program manager of a large program that has a high profile and visibility in her
organization. Some of the stakeholders are negative and Harriet needs to work with these stakeholders to
address their fears, perceived threats, and concerns about the program. Which communication method is
considered to be the best approach for this scenario?
A. Face-to-face
B. Many-to-many
C. Ad hoc conversation
D. One-to-many
Answer: A

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NO.23 You are the program manager for your organization. Management would like to consider the present
value for your program. If your program is predicted to be worth $450,000 in two years what is the present
value of the program if the interest rate is six percent?
A. $400,498
B. $521,345
C. $505,620
D. $385,450
Answer: A

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NO.24 You are the program manager for your organization and you need to define all of the program
resources you'll need for your program. All of the following can be considered a program resource except
for which one?
A. A forklift
B. Materials for the installation of a new server
C. A positive risk response
D. Gary, an application developer
Answer: C

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NO.25 Andy is the program manager of the HQN Program. This program is nearing its completion and there is
still $25,000 left in the program budget. Andy has asked the program team to identify some extra
deliverables that can be included in the program scope to improve the program deliverable but also to use
all of the funds in the budget. What term is assigned to the actions that Andy is trying to do in this
instance?
A. Value-added change requests
B. Zero based budgeting
C. Integrated change control
D. Gold plating
Answer: D

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NO.26 You are a program manager for your organization. You have proposed a program to the management
that will last four years and will cost $35 million to create. Management has asked to see the program
charter and the proposed costs and benefits of the program. Management agrees to your program charter
and proposed to fund the program in increment at the completion of each milestone. What type of funding
does management proposed for this program?
A. Tentative
B. Step funding
C. Milestone approval
D. Phase gate estimating
Answer: B

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NO.27 Your program has 121 stakeholders that you'll need to communicate with. Your communications
management plan defines how the communication should happen, what should be communicated, and
the expected modality of the communications. You'll also need which one of the following as an input to
the information distribution process in your program?
A. Change requests
B. Earned value management results
C. Stakeholder analysis plan
D. Performance reports
Answer: C

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NO.28 You have created a control chart for a repeatable process in your program. You have discovered that
the seven most recent measurements are all on the positive side of the mean in your control chart. What
is this phenomenon called?
A. Rule of Improvement
B. Mean Improvement
C. Rule of Seven
D. Low-Riding Mean
Answer: C

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NO.29 Mike is the program manager of the NHQ Program. Mike and a vendor are in disagreement over the
deliverable the vendor has created for Mike's program. Mike does not believe the vendor has correctly
created the deliverable, while the vendor is adamant that his company has indeed completed the contract.
Both parties have documented their stance in the debate.
This is an example of what?
A. Breach of contract
B. Issue
C. Risk
D. Claim
Answer: D

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NO.30 A project manager in your program has estimated the cost of a program to be $145,000. As the project
manager's project comes close to completion, the project manager realizes that he has still $27,876 left in
his project budget. He decides to add some additional features to the project's deliverables in an effort to
use the remaining budget. These additions will add value to the project and the project customer is likely
to enjoy these new features. This is an example of what term?
A. Gold plating
B. Errors and omissions
C. Expert judgment by the project manager
D. Value added change
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ICDL-Windows
Nom d'Examen: ICDL (The ICDL L4 Windows Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

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NO.2 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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NO.3 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

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NO.4 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: FM0-307
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.3 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

NO.4 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the FileMaker
Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
data.
D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
field is changed to store data externally.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced?
A. 10, 000
B. 32, 000
C. 50, 000
D. 64, 000
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 12 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: A

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NO.8 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list of all of
a salesperson's orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order records
are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID And use a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerID Self
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Set a sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configure the portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. bases the portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerID Teammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID And use a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerID Teammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.11 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-307   FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.12 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

FileMaker examen   FM0-307   FM0-307   FM0-307 examen

NO.15 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.16 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-307   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307   FM0-307 examen

NO.17 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table from
Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to call a
script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 12 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.20 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: VCP410
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

VMware examen   VCP410   VCP410

NO.2 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

VMware   VCP410   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.4 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

VMware examen   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.6 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

VMware examen   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.7 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

VMware examen   VCP410   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.9 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

VMware   certification VCP410   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410

NO.10 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.11 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

VMware   VCP410   certification VCP410

NO.12 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.14 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.15 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.16 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.17 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

VMware   VCP410   VCP410 examen   VCP410   VCP410

NO.18 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

VMware   VCP410 examen   VCP410   VCP410

NO.19 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

VMware   VCP410 examen   VCP410   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.20 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: VCP510-DT
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Desktop )
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two operating systems are supported for a View Transfer Server installation? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 An administrator is installing a View Security Server on a Windows Server 2003 R2 system.
Which three Windows Firewall ports must be pre-configured prior to installation to enable remote access?
(Choose three.)
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Answer: A,B,D

VMware   VCP510-DT examen   VCP510-DT examen

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three replica servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
A. Three replica servers can result in client connection problems.
B. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
C. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: C

VMware   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.4 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

VMware   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.5 The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections.?
(Choose three.)
A. Active Directory Connections
B. View Connection Broker Connections
C. Replicas created by the View Composer
D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer
E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer
Answer: A,C,E

VMware   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT examen

NO.6 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a View Connection
Server and the vCenter Server running View Composer? (Choose two.)
A. 18443
B. 443
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A,B

VMware   certification VCP510-DT   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.7 Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment?
(Choose two.)
A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit
C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit
D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
Answer: A,D

VMware examen   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.8 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator is creating a new virtual machine for use as a View Transfer Server.
Which SCSI controller should be selected?
A. Buslogic Parallel
B. LSI Logic Parallel
C. LSI Logic SAS
D. VMware Paravirtual
Answer: C

VMware   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT examen

NO.10 Which TCP port must be open on the firewall of the View Transfer Server?
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two operating systems are supported for the View Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
Answer: B,D

VMware   VCP510-DT   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.12 What is the minimum required level of privileges required to install the View Connection Server?
A. Domain User
B. Domain Administrator
C. Local Power User
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator is preparing to install a View Connection Server 5.x for the first time.
Which two server prerequisites are required for a proper installation on Windows Server 2003? (Choose
two.)
A. Configure a SSL certificate for use with the Connection Server.
B. Configure a static IP address on the server.
C. Configure a domain administrator account for installation.
D. Configure the firewall with the appropriate open ports.
Answer: B,D

VMware examen   VCP510-DT   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.14 What are three required permissions that need to be assigned to the View Composer user account?
(Choose three.)
A. Create User Accounts
B. Create Computer Objects
C. Delete Group Accounts
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Write All Properties
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.15 Which three items must be configured prior to installing a View Security Server? (Choose three.)
A. Connection Server
B. Security Server External URL
C. Security Server Firewall Exceptions
D. Security Server Pairing Password
E. Security Server Static IP address
Answer: A,C,D

VMware   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT examen   VCP510-DT   certification VCP510-DT

NO.16 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

VMware   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.17 How many disks can a View Transfer Server concurrently transfer?
A. 15
B. 60
C. 4
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5
environment? (Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
Answer: A,C,E

VMware   VCP510-DT   certification VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT   VCP510-DT

NO.19 What is the proper syntax to use when adding a domain user to the View Composer configuration?
A. DOMAIN\USER
B. DOMAIN.COM\USER
C. OU=DOMAIN, CN=USER
D. USER@DOMAIN.COM
Answer: B

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NO.20 An administrator is adding a replicated instance of View Connection Server to the environment silently.
Which MSI property would be used to identify the instance being replicated?
A. ADAM_PRIMARY_INSTANCE
B. ADAM_PRIMARY_NAME
C. VDM_INSTANCE_NAME
D. VDM_SERVER_INSTANCE
Answer: B

VMware   VCP510-DT   certification VCP510-DT

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Code d'Examen: VCP510J
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5 (VCP-510日本語版))
Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

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NO.1 vCenter は、クラ スタの会員でない ESXi 5.x ホストに関する接続問 題を報告しました。
管理者は、 vSphere ク ラ゗ゕントを使用して、 ホストに直接接続することを試みますが、 「未
知の接続エラーが生じた」というメッセージが表示されて失敗しました。
ホスト上で実行中の仮想マシンが実行されているように見えて、問題を報告していません。
どの 2 つの方法が仮想マシンに影響を与えずに問題を解決できるのでしょうか。( 二つ選ん
でください。)
A. SSH あるいはローカ ル CLI のいずれかからサービス mgmt-vmware 再起動のコマンドを 入力
する。
B. 直接コンソール? ユーザ? ゗ンターフェース(DCUI) でリスタート管理エージェントを選択
する。
C. 直接コンソール? ユ ーザ? ゗ンターフェース(DCUI) 中のリブート? ホストを選択する。
D. SSH あるいはローカ ル CLI のいずれかから services.sh 再始動コマンドを入力する。
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 管理者は、 ESXi ホ ストが vCenter Server で管理することができないことを検出しました。
どのログが DCUI を使用してレビューすることができますか?( 三つ選んでください。)
A. システムのログ
B. コンフゖグ? ログ
C. 仮想中心代理人
D. ESXi のシェルのログ
E. VMware HA のログ
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 テンプレートへ の仮想マシンのク ローンを作る場合、 下記のリストからのどの二つの
属性を目的地仮想デゖスクのために変更することができますか。( 二つ選んでください。)
A. 仮想デゖスクのフォーマット
B. ネットワーク? ゕダ プタの数
C. IP ゕドレス
D. 仮想マシンのフゔ ゗ルの場所
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 記憶管理者は記憶配列上のジャンボ フ レームおよび有効な ジ ャンボフレームの性 能 の
利点をテストすることをゕドバ゗スしました。VMware 管理者は、 ソフトウェゕ iSCSI 開始
者に使用された VMkernel ポ ー ト 上 の ジ ャ ン ボ フ レ ー ム を 有 効 に し ま し た 。 ソ フ ト ウ ェ ゕ
iSCSI 開始者のジャンボフレーム支援を有効にするために他のどの 2 つのコンポーネントを
修正しなければなりませんか。( 二つ選んでください。)
A. 物理的なス゗ッチ
B. ポート? グループ
C. ソフトウェゕ開始 者
D. 仮想ス゗ッチ
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 クラスタが管理 する vSphere のストレ ージゕプラ゗ゕンス(VSA )の IP ゕドレスはど
こにありますか。
A. ウェブ? ベースのポータルを使用する各 VSA ゕプラ゗ゕンス上
B. クラスタホステゖ ング VSA 用の VSA マネ ージャタブで
C. ウェブ? ベースのポ ータルを使用する VSA マネージャーゕプラ゗ゕンス上
D. VSA ホストに゗ンス トールした vCenter サ ーバー上
Answer: B

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NO.6 管理者は、 ローカ ル· デゖスクを含まないブレード· サーバーの ESXi の 5.x のを展開する
予定です。
どのブーツ? オプションがローカル? デゖスクの代わりの使用のためにサポートされますか。
( 三つ選んでください。)
A. SD カード
B. iBFT を備えた NIC
C. 自動配備
D. IPMI または iLO を持ったサーバー
E. 専用 NFS シェゕ
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 どの vSwitch か vSwitch ポート? グループ政策セッテゖングは形成された MAC ゕド レス
とは異 なっ てい る目的地 MAC ゕ ドレ スを 備 えたバ ーチ ャル? マシ ンによ って パケ ット が 受
け取られることを可能にしますか。
A. プロミスキャスモード
B. トラフゖック? シェ ーピング
C. 鍛造された送信
D. MAC ゕドレス変更
Answer: D

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NO.8 仮想マシンの電源が資源プールの内 部 で切られる場合、資 源 プールの子が利用で き る
ェゕの総数はどうなるのでしょうか。
A. 同じまま
B. 減少
C. 増加
D. カスタムシェゕ値 が設定されている場合のみ、それは同じままであ る。
Answer: B

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VCPC510 dernières questions d'examen certification VMware et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: VCPC510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vCloud)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

VMware   certification VCPC510   certification VCPC510   VCPC510

NO.3 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

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NO.5 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: TB0-118
Nom d'Examen: Tibco (Architecting Composite Applications and Services with TIBCO)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 When a single instance of a service provider is no longer capable of handling the volume of activity due
to the business process complexity required to handle each request, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A.XML compression reduces the load on the service providers.
B.Scalability can be improved using technology such as HTTP load balancers.
C.The feature should be re-architected as it is not a good candidate for Web Services.
D.Using a JMS-based transport can help improve scalability.
Answer:BD

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about processes defined with the Business Process Execution
Language for Web Services (WS-BPEL)? (Choose two.)
A.Process faults in WS-BPEL always return SOAP faults.
B.WS-BPEL processes are always initiated by Web Service calls.
C.Data mappings in a WS-BPEL process require an external service invocation.
D.All functionality used by a WS-BPEL process must be provided in the form of Web Services.
Answer:BD

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NO.3 Which three characteristics define a Service Component Architecture component type? (Choose
three.)
A.the implementation technology of the component
B.the services that are provided by the component
C.the properties of the component
D.the binding types of the component
E.the references that are made by the component
Answer:BCE

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NO.4 What are two essential elements of a reference architecture? (Choose two.)
A.a concrete deployment model
B.an abstracted architecture pattern
C.a common data model
D.an abstracted process model
Answer:BD

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NO.5 Requirements call for a standards-compliant messaging solution.
Which TIBCO product best meets this requirement?
A.TIBCO BusinessEvents
B.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus
C.TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
D.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid
E.TIBCO Enterprise Messaging Server
Answer:A

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NO.6 What is an important practical benefit of service discovery?
A.It allows programs to dynamically discover new features as needed.
B.It allows internal development groups to find functionality that can be reused.
C.It allows services to discover potential consumers using the UDDI protocol.
D.It allows governance groups to discover functionality that could become a service.
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are deploying a Web Service that is bound to a JMS transport on multiple TIBCO ActiveMatrix
nodes.
What can you do to achieve service scalability?
A.reference a JMS topic in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
B.reference a JMS queue in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
C.configure a routed messaging topology with a multi-hop zone
D.configure queue-to-queue bridging without specifying a selector
Answer:C

Tibco examen   TB0-118   TB0-118

NO.8 Which three statements are true about a WSDL instance? (Choose three.)
A.It describes the location of a service, but not the individual operations.
B.It does not require concrete communications endpoints
C.A message may contain more than one part, such as a purchase order and an invoice.
D.An action supported by a service is known as its binding.
E.A port type (interface) is an abstract set of operations.
Answer:BCE

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NO.9 Which two statements reflect the realities about using common data models? (Choose two.)
A.A common data model provides a single representation of each concept that is used everywhere.
B.The goal of common data models is to minimize the number of representations of each concept.
C.The use of comprehensive data structures that combine many concepts simplifies interface design.
D.Enterprises typically require more than one representation for each concept.
Answer:BD

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NO.10 Which two composition styles can be used to define a composite application? (Choose two.)
A.orchestration
B.integration
C.choreography
D.collaboration
Answer:AC

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NO.11 Which three aspects of design must be defined by the architect using a Total Architecture approach?
(Choose three.)
A.system components
B.security policies
C.communication paths and communication mechanisms
D.interaction with human participants
E.use of Common Data Model schemas in service interfaces
Answer:ACD

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NO.12 Which three categories of information should be found in a domain information model? (Choose
three.)
A.concepts
B.detailed attributes
C.attribute datatypes
D.identifiers
E.relationship multiplicity
Answer:ADE

Tibco examen   TB0-118 examen   TB0-118 examen   TB0-118 examen

NO.13 Which two statements are true with respect to the granularity of a service? (Choose two.)
A.Fine-grained services are likely to be usable in many places, so you can ignore their access overhead.
B.Fine-grained service benefits may be outweighed by their access overhead.
C.Coarse-grained services are likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality
D.Coarse-grained services are less likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality.
Answer:BD

Tibco   certification TB0-118   TB0-118   TB0-118

NO.14 In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?
A. PKCS12
B. PKCS7
C. KeyStore
D. PEM
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the root element of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus design?
A.SCA component
B.SCA composite
C.mediation flow
D.Spring implementation type
Answer:D

Tibco   TB0-118   certification TB0-118   TB0-118

NO.16 What are three things that can be managed via runtime policies? (Choose three.)
A.service granularity
B.request logging
C.service ownership
D.design versioning
E.access control
F.usage auditing
Answer:BEF

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NO.17 When wrapping a backend system, what does a Web Service always provide that the native system
interface does not?
A.standardized service operation semantics
B.an HTTP-based interface
C.a common data model
D.access independent of implementation technology
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which two statements are true about namespaces in the XSD standard? (Choose two.)
A.Namespaces are intended as descriptive information for human users.
B.Changes to namespaces are commonly used to identify major version changes in an XSD.
C.An XML file can be validated with two XSDs, which differ by namespace but have the same element
definitions.
D.Two XSD files, which differ by namespace but with the same elements definitions, define different
schemas.
Answer:BD

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NO.19 Which two interaction patterns are supported in TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus? (Choose two.)
A.Synchronous In-Out with SOAP/JMS
B.Asynchronous In-Out with SOAP/HTTP
C.Synchronous Out-In with XML over JMS
D.Asynchronous Out-Only with XML over JMS
Answer:AD

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NO.20 A TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus-based order fulfillment application makes outbound requests to an
inventory service. Based on the geography and quantity of the order, the request must be routed to one of
a number of different specialized inventory service instances.
What are two possible ways to route the requests in ActiveMatrix? (Choose two.)
A.configure the order fulfillment application to reference the different inventory service instances
B.use XPath to create conditional references from the order fulfillment composite to each inventory
service instance
C.create a Mediation Flow containing route tasks and route cases
D.create a dynamic binding to the inventory service and use XPath to compute the routing
Answer:CD

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