2013年9月1日星期日

Avaya 3100 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 3100
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one
administered telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office
telephone and one outside cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to "Yes" in order to
use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin.
Which command do you use to verify the field settings?
A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding
Answer: B

Avaya   3100   3100 examen   3100

NO.2 There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?
A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA
is for customers.
C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA
provides access to day-to-day administration functions.
D. Old hardware and software (Pre - 5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and
software (5.x and later) is administered using ASA.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   3100   3100   3100 examen

NO.3 A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application
will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to "point" to
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension,
you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was
used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user's information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the
security code field is.
With reference to the scenario described in the exhibit, which action should you take to ensure that
the user can use the IP SoftPhone?
A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.
Answer: A

Avaya examen   3100   3100   3100

NO.4 Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI).
Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose
three)
A. The backup function creates two complete files on the internal hardware drive.
B. The backup function can create a file on a network device using protocols: SCP , SFTP , or FTP .
C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the
backup file.
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   certification 3100   certification 3100   3100

NO.5 Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit.
Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group
50?
A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes
Answer: B

Avaya   3100   3100   3100

NO.6 You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media
Gateway and a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and
MM71 in the slot V2, and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?
A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)
Answer: D

Avaya   3100   3100   certification 3100   certification 3100

NO.7 You want a user's station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only.
Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user' station, In COR11
Set COR-to COR calling permission = 'n' for all except COR 10.
Assign COR to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user's station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user's station.
In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = 'n' for all except.
Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user's station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 6104
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

Avaya   6104   6104   6104   6104   6104

NO.2 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

Avaya   6104 examen   6104

NO.4 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6104   6104 examen

NO.5 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

certification Avaya   6104   6104   6104 examen

NO.6 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6104   6104

NO.8 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

Avaya   6104 examen   6104

NO.9 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

Avaya   6104   6104   6104 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3107
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3107   3107   3107   3107

NO.2 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3107 examen   3107   3107   3107 examen   3107

NO.3 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

Avaya   3107 examen   3107   3107

NO.4 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 3107   3107   3107

NO.5 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

Avaya   3107 examen   3107   3107 examen

NO.6 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3107   certification 3107   3107 examen

NO.7 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

Avaya   3107   3107   certification 3107

NO.8 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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2013年8月31日星期六

RDCR08201 dernières questions d'examen certification Business-Objects et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: RDCR08201
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level One)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

certification Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.2 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201 examen   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.3 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.4 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

Business-Objects   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.5 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

Business-Objects examen   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.6 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

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NO.7 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

Business-Objects examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.9 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

certification Business-Objects   RDCR08201 examen   RDCR08201   RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201

NO.10 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

Business-Objects   certification RDCR08201   certification RDCR08201   RDCR08201

NO.11 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

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NO.13 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.15 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

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NO.16 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

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NO.17 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.18 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

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NO.19 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.20 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

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NO.21 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.22 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

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NO.23 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

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NO.24 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

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NO.25 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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NO.26 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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NO.27 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.28 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

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NO.29 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

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NO.30 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: 050-V37
Nom d'Examen: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.2 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.3 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.4 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.5 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.6 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.7 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.8 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.9 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.10 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.11 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.12 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.13 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.14 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

RSA   050-V37   050-V37

NO.15 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.16 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.17 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.18 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.19 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

RSA   050-V37   050-V37   050-V37   050-V37

NO.20 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: 050-CSEDLPS
Nom d'Examen: RSA (CSE RSA Data Loss Prevention 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Incidents that are created as the result of RSA DLP agent scan on an end user's computer will be
categorized as Datacenter Incidents.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Any ICAP client Proxy server can communicate with the ICAPserver by default. Which configuration file
is used to limit which Client proxy can connect to the ICAPserver appliance?
A. ICAP.cnf
B. ICAP.conf
C. proxy.conf
D. c-ICAP.conf
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Linux based version of the DLP Enterprise Coordinator is installed on the RSA DLP Network
controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which appliance can be set in scan and tag mode
A. Network Sensor
B. Network Controller
C. Network Interceptor
D. Network ICAPserver
Answer: C

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NO.5 RSA DLP Endpoint Enforce uses the same infrastructure as RSA DLP Endpoint Discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT available as an option in Incident handling rules for DLP Network or
Datacenter?
A. Quarantine end user action
B. Assign Incident to User or Group
C. Set incident severity to a different setting
D. Automatically close an incident if severity level is low
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a component of the RSA DLP Suite?
A. Network
B. Endpoint
C. Filesystem
D. Datacenter
Answer: C

RSA   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS

NO.8 The RBC Company is performing datacenter scans on file shares within the corporate network. The
scans are permanent scans. Which of the following would require clearing the results of the previous scan
and performing a new complete scan?
A. New Grid Workers
B. New Grid Scan Group
C. New content blade in policy
D. Change of Operating System
Answer: C

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NO.9 DLP network can decompress files that are compressed and analyze the contents of compressed files.
What is the maximum number of times, a file can be compressed before the e system cannot handle the
decompression/analysis of an attachment or transmission.
A. 20 levels of compression
B. 50 levels of compression
C. 75 levels of compression
D. 100 level of compression
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following components is required to monitor/block HTTPS traffic in DLP Network?
A. Span Port
B. Bluecoat Proxy
C. Network Sensor
D. Network Controller
Answer: B

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CCNT dernières questions d'examen certification TIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: CCNT
Nom d'Examen: TIA (Convergent Network Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 1056 Q&As

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NO.1 A connection between a phone and a switch is called a:
A. T1.
B. Trunk.
C. Line.
D. Wire.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A few lines serve multiple users using a:
A. PBX.
B. CO switch.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Key system.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Commercial long distance telephony began in:
A. 1938.
B. 1811.
C. 1881.
D. 1876.
Answer: C

TIA examen   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.4 If you want to track the cost of long distance calls, the feature you use is called:
A. SMDR
B. CAR
C. LLCR
D. LCR
Answer: A

TIA examen   CCNT   CCNT

NO.5 DC signaling is used by analog sets for:
A. In-band signaling.
B. Supervisory signaling.
C. Ringing.
D. Touchtone signaling
Answer: C

TIA   CCNT   CCNT

NO.6 An 8 by 4 key system would have:
A. Eight lines.
B. Eight trunks.
C. Eight stations.
D. Four stations.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A PBX can select the most economical trunk group using:
A. Translations.
B. Least cost routing.
C. Automatic selection lists.
D. Account code routing.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The CO switch provides power for:
A. Analog station sets.
B. Digital station sets.
C. Tie lines.
D. Key service units.
Answer: A

TIA examen   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT

NO.9 A PBX can provide multiple:
A. Billing systems.
B. Entry points.
C. Trunk groups.
D. Power supplies
Answer: C

TIA examen   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.10 Which of the following technologies are changing our view of telecommunications?
A. Transistor, computers, and fiber optics
B. Satellite and submarine technology
C. Computers and communications
D. Cell and PCS phones, and the Web browser
Answer: D

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NO.11 The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is defined by:
A. Direct trunk access to the called party.
B. Private leased lines.
C. Long-distance connection.
D. Dial-up access
Answer: D

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NO.12 CPE is:
A. Owned by the ILEC.
B. Owned by a CLEC.
C. Owned or leased by the end user.
D. Provided by the IXC.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Telecommunications is:
A. The use of a telephone or similar equipment for voice communication.
B. The practice of transporting a signal, often through a switch, typically using voice
communications technology.
C. Communications at a distance.
D. The designing of a telephone network calling area.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A telephone is called a:
A. Station set.
B. Message oriented device.
C. Key device.
D. Simple port.
Answer: A

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NO.15 An in-band signal used by station sets is:
A. Loop start.
B. TT, or DTMF.
C. Rotary dial.
D. E&M.
Answer: B

TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT examen   CCNT   CCNT

NO.16 The point of demarcation divides:
A. The central office from the network.
B. Network responsibility and subscriber responsibility.
C. Local networks and long-distance networks.
D. IXC POP switch and CO switch.
Answer: B

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NO.17 An OPX is:
A. An outside party line.
B. A station set on a different premise than the PBX.
C. An outside priority extension call.
D. Onside parameter exchange.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A trunk is:
A. A T1.
B. A connection between a key system and a switch.
C. A connection between two switches.
D. A connection between a switch and a STP.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Cellular subscribers represent:
A. Only 5 percent of the total voice users.
B. The largest growth in absolute numbers over the last decade.
C. A declining segment of the telecommunications market.
D. The most exciting area of Internet access innovation.
Answer: B

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NO.20 The transistor, stored program control, and digital technologies enabled:
A. The Internet.
B. Universal service.
C. Deregulation of telecommunications.
D. International calling.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Universal service and interconnection are goals of:
A. IXCs.
B. Public policy in the United States.
C. The FCC.
D. Congress.
Answer: B

TIA   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT

NO.22 The device that controls the operation of the key telephone system is called:
A. Central control.
B. A call processor.
C. A key service unit.
D. The system controller.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Direct Inward Dialing uses:
A. Key system lines.
B. Loop start functionality.
C. Digital key systems.
D. Trunks.
Answer: D

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NO.24 The LEC service that provides PBX like features from the LEC switch is:
A. Centrex.
B. SMDR.
C. Off-premise extensions.
D. Off-premise switching.
Answer: A

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NO.25 The MFJ:
A. Deregulated PBXs.
B. Deregulated premise wiring.
C. Created the RBOCs.
D. Created the Bell System.
Answer: C

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NO.26 The three parts of the PSTN are switching, access, and:
A. CPE.
B. PBX.
C. Trunking.
D. Transmission.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Tie trunks are not switched by:
A. The telco.
B. The PBX.
C. The premise switch.
D. Using LCR.
Answer: A

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NO.28 In a key system, direct access means:
A. Callers can access an outside line.
B. Callers access an outside line using "dial 9."
C. Callers access an outside line without using an attendant.
D. Callers access an outside by pressing a button.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Call appearance buttons allow the management of multiple:
A. Calls.
B. Station sets.
C. Display colors.
D. Analog modems
Answer: B

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NO.30 A PBX is:
A. A switch.
B. A simplified line sharing device.
C. An analog multiplexer.
D. Owned by the telco.
Answer: A

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