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Code d'Examen: 050-CSEDLPS
Nom d'Examen: RSA (CSE RSA Data Loss Prevention 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Incidents that are created as the result of RSA DLP agent scan on an end user's computer will be
categorized as Datacenter Incidents.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

RSA   050-CSEDLPS examen   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS examen

NO.2 Any ICAP client Proxy server can communicate with the ICAPserver by default. Which configuration file
is used to limit which Client proxy can connect to the ICAPserver appliance?
A. ICAP.cnf
B. ICAP.conf
C. proxy.conf
D. c-ICAP.conf
Answer: D

RSA examen   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS examen

NO.3 A Linux based version of the DLP Enterprise Coordinator is installed on the RSA DLP Network
controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

RSA examen   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS

NO.4 Which appliance can be set in scan and tag mode
A. Network Sensor
B. Network Controller
C. Network Interceptor
D. Network ICAPserver
Answer: C

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NO.5 RSA DLP Endpoint Enforce uses the same infrastructure as RSA DLP Endpoint Discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT available as an option in Incident handling rules for DLP Network or
Datacenter?
A. Quarantine end user action
B. Assign Incident to User or Group
C. Set incident severity to a different setting
D. Automatically close an incident if severity level is low
Answer: A

RSA   050-CSEDLPS   certification 050-CSEDLPS   certification 050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS examen   050-CSEDLPS

NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a component of the RSA DLP Suite?
A. Network
B. Endpoint
C. Filesystem
D. Datacenter
Answer: C

RSA   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS

NO.8 The RBC Company is performing datacenter scans on file shares within the corporate network. The
scans are permanent scans. Which of the following would require clearing the results of the previous scan
and performing a new complete scan?
A. New Grid Workers
B. New Grid Scan Group
C. New content blade in policy
D. Change of Operating System
Answer: C

certification RSA   certification 050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS examen   050-CSEDLPS examen

NO.9 DLP network can decompress files that are compressed and analyze the contents of compressed files.
What is the maximum number of times, a file can be compressed before the e system cannot handle the
decompression/analysis of an attachment or transmission.
A. 20 levels of compression
B. 50 levels of compression
C. 75 levels of compression
D. 100 level of compression
Answer: A

certification RSA   050-CSEDLPS   050-CSEDLPS

NO.10 Which of the following components is required to monitor/block HTTPS traffic in DLP Network?
A. Span Port
B. Bluecoat Proxy
C. Network Sensor
D. Network Controller
Answer: B

RSA   050-CSEDLPS examen   050-CSEDLPS

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CCNT dernières questions d'examen certification TIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: CCNT
Nom d'Examen: TIA (Convergent Network Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 1056 Q&As

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NO.1 A connection between a phone and a switch is called a:
A. T1.
B. Trunk.
C. Line.
D. Wire.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A few lines serve multiple users using a:
A. PBX.
B. CO switch.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Key system.
Answer: D

TIA examen   CCNT   CCNT examen   CCNT

NO.3 Commercial long distance telephony began in:
A. 1938.
B. 1811.
C. 1881.
D. 1876.
Answer: C

TIA examen   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.4 If you want to track the cost of long distance calls, the feature you use is called:
A. SMDR
B. CAR
C. LLCR
D. LCR
Answer: A

TIA examen   CCNT   CCNT

NO.5 DC signaling is used by analog sets for:
A. In-band signaling.
B. Supervisory signaling.
C. Ringing.
D. Touchtone signaling
Answer: C

TIA   CCNT   CCNT

NO.6 An 8 by 4 key system would have:
A. Eight lines.
B. Eight trunks.
C. Eight stations.
D. Four stations.
Answer: C

TIA   certification CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.7 A PBX can select the most economical trunk group using:
A. Translations.
B. Least cost routing.
C. Automatic selection lists.
D. Account code routing.
Answer: B

TIA   certification CCNT   CCNT   CCNT examen

NO.8 The CO switch provides power for:
A. Analog station sets.
B. Digital station sets.
C. Tie lines.
D. Key service units.
Answer: A

TIA examen   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT

NO.9 A PBX can provide multiple:
A. Billing systems.
B. Entry points.
C. Trunk groups.
D. Power supplies
Answer: C

TIA examen   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.10 Which of the following technologies are changing our view of telecommunications?
A. Transistor, computers, and fiber optics
B. Satellite and submarine technology
C. Computers and communications
D. Cell and PCS phones, and the Web browser
Answer: D

TIA   CCNT   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.11 The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is defined by:
A. Direct trunk access to the called party.
B. Private leased lines.
C. Long-distance connection.
D. Dial-up access
Answer: D

TIA examen   certification CCNT   CCNT   CCNT examen

NO.12 CPE is:
A. Owned by the ILEC.
B. Owned by a CLEC.
C. Owned or leased by the end user.
D. Provided by the IXC.
Answer: C

TIA   CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.13 Telecommunications is:
A. The use of a telephone or similar equipment for voice communication.
B. The practice of transporting a signal, often through a switch, typically using voice
communications technology.
C. Communications at a distance.
D. The designing of a telephone network calling area.
Answer: C

TIA   CCNT   CCNT   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.14 A telephone is called a:
A. Station set.
B. Message oriented device.
C. Key device.
D. Simple port.
Answer: A

TIA   certification CCNT   CCNT   CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.15 An in-band signal used by station sets is:
A. Loop start.
B. TT, or DTMF.
C. Rotary dial.
D. E&M.
Answer: B

TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT examen   CCNT   CCNT

NO.16 The point of demarcation divides:
A. The central office from the network.
B. Network responsibility and subscriber responsibility.
C. Local networks and long-distance networks.
D. IXC POP switch and CO switch.
Answer: B

TIA   certification CCNT   CCNT   CCNT examen

NO.17 An OPX is:
A. An outside party line.
B. A station set on a different premise than the PBX.
C. An outside priority extension call.
D. Onside parameter exchange.
Answer: C

TIA   CCNT   CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.18 A trunk is:
A. A T1.
B. A connection between a key system and a switch.
C. A connection between two switches.
D. A connection between a switch and a STP.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Cellular subscribers represent:
A. Only 5 percent of the total voice users.
B. The largest growth in absolute numbers over the last decade.
C. A declining segment of the telecommunications market.
D. The most exciting area of Internet access innovation.
Answer: B

TIA   CCNT   CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.20 The transistor, stored program control, and digital technologies enabled:
A. The Internet.
B. Universal service.
C. Deregulation of telecommunications.
D. International calling.
Answer: B

certification TIA   certification CCNT   CCNT examen   CCNT

NO.21 Universal service and interconnection are goals of:
A. IXCs.
B. Public policy in the United States.
C. The FCC.
D. Congress.
Answer: B

TIA   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT

NO.22 The device that controls the operation of the key telephone system is called:
A. Central control.
B. A call processor.
C. A key service unit.
D. The system controller.
Answer: C

TIA examen   CCNT examen   certification CCNT   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.23 Direct Inward Dialing uses:
A. Key system lines.
B. Loop start functionality.
C. Digital key systems.
D. Trunks.
Answer: D

TIA examen   CCNT   CCNT examen   CCNT   CCNT   CCNT examen

NO.24 The LEC service that provides PBX like features from the LEC switch is:
A. Centrex.
B. SMDR.
C. Off-premise extensions.
D. Off-premise switching.
Answer: A

TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT examen   CCNT

NO.25 The MFJ:
A. Deregulated PBXs.
B. Deregulated premise wiring.
C. Created the RBOCs.
D. Created the Bell System.
Answer: C

certification TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.26 The three parts of the PSTN are switching, access, and:
A. CPE.
B. PBX.
C. Trunking.
D. Transmission.
Answer: D

TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT   certification CCNT

NO.27 Tie trunks are not switched by:
A. The telco.
B. The PBX.
C. The premise switch.
D. Using LCR.
Answer: A

certification TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT   CCNT examen

NO.28 In a key system, direct access means:
A. Callers can access an outside line.
B. Callers access an outside line using "dial 9."
C. Callers access an outside line without using an attendant.
D. Callers access an outside by pressing a button.
Answer: D

TIA   CCNT examen   CCNT

NO.29 Call appearance buttons allow the management of multiple:
A. Calls.
B. Station sets.
C. Display colors.
D. Analog modems
Answer: B

certification TIA   CCNT examen   certification CCNT   CCNT

NO.30 A PBX is:
A. A switch.
B. A simplified line sharing device.
C. An analog multiplexer.
D. Owned by the telco.
Answer: A

TIA   CCNT   CCNT examen

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Pass4Test offre une formation sur PMI PMI-002 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: PMI-002
Nom d'Examen: PMI (Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification)
Questions et réponses: 748 Q&As

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NO.1 Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of ____________.
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A

PMI examen   PMI-002   certification PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.2 A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
B. Index
C. sow
D. Project History
Answer: A

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NO.3 Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-002   certification PMI-002   PMI-002 examen

NO.4 Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
Answer: B

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NO.5 In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: B

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NO.6 Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are project manager and the monthly report to the client showed zero schedule variance.
However, member of the team know that a milestone has been missed which will cause an
overall delay to the project. Which one of the following is being inadequately reported?
A. Communication plan variance
B. Resource management plan
C. Critical path status
D. Risk analysis
Answer: C

PMI   certification PMI-002   PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.8 Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)
D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
Answer: D

PMI   PMI-002   PMI-002   certification PMI-002

NO.9 Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Answer: A

PMI examen   PMI-002   PMI-002   PMI-002   PMI-002 examen

NO.10 The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the
following best describes product description?
A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the
project customer
B. The product description defines the contracted work
C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-002   PMI-002 examen   certification PMI-002   PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.11 The end of the project comes after which of the following?
A. Project charter
B. F'na' deliverable
C. Schedule
D. QA activities are done
Answer: B

certification PMI   certification PMI-002   PMI-002   certification PMI-002

NO.12 What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A. Project task
B. w¡ãrl< packag
C. sow
D. None
Answer: B

PMI examen   PMI-002 examen   certification PMI-002

NO.13 Most change requests are a result of _______.
A. Value added change (enhancements)
B. Schedule constraints
C. Regulatory constraints
D. Improvement to the project scope
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-002   certification PMI-002

NO.14 Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?
A. The project manager
B. The project sponsor
C. The Team lead
D. The nianagement
Answer: B

PMI examen   PMI-002 examen   PMI-002

NO.15 Project Quality Management includes:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Prevention over inspection
C. Continuous improvement
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D

certification PMI   PMI-002   PMI-002   PMI-002 examen

NO.16 Create Procurement document is done in _______.
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.17 Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project
B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
Answer: A

PMI   certification PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.18 Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-002 examen   certification PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.19 Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps
to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Answer: A

PMI examen   PMI-002   PMI-002   PMI-002

NO.20 You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM
failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?
A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding
B. Confront the person immediately
C. Ignore the rumours
D.

Les meilleures ICDL ICDL-Windows examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ICDL-Windows
Nom d'Examen: ICDL (The ICDL L4 Windows Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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NO.2 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

ICDL examen   ICDL-Windows   certification ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows examen   certification ICDL-Windows

NO.3 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

ICDL examen   ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows examen

NO.4 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

ICDL   certification ICDL-Windows   certification ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows examen

NO.5 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: FM0-305
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 11)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.2 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in field options, using
the following formula:
name First & " " & Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
for which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name? (Choose
two.)
A. when the record is first created
B. when the field Full Name itself is modified
C. only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. when either of the fields Name First or Name Last are modified
E. when the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: AD

FileMaker   FM0-305 examen   certification FM0-305

NO.3 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records... nor the Delete
related records... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.4 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on the
Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related records in
Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & " " & Name Last) will be broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values in the
Client ID field deleted.
Answer: C

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305 examen

NO.5 Given a text field myText that contains "<color>blue</color>", which formula extracts the word "blue"
from the field?
A. Filter (myText ; "color")
B. MiddleWords (myText ; 2)
C. PatternMatch (myText ; "blue")
D. Middle ( myText ; Position ( myText ; "blue" ; 1 ; 1 ) ;4)
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305 examen

NO.6 A Text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 11 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & LastName.
FirstName and LastName are Text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
C. each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: AE

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NO.7 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after renaming the
Item file to Artifact?
A. delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and recreate them
for Artifact
B. click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file path
C. choose File > Manage > External Data Sources... for Collection and reset the file path
D. select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right-click to
choose Rename File Source...
E. choose the File > Recover... menu in FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced, select the Collection file, then
choose Repair References under Advanced Recover Options
Answer: C

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.8 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 11 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.9 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 11 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.10 Which two features require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. List function
B. Dynamic subsummary reports
C. Auto-complete using existing values
D. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
E. Add Leading Group by <field name> in Table View
Answer: CD

certification FileMaker   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305

NO.11 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. There are no records in the Event table at this time.
B. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC data source.
C. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
D. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data sources.
E. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both related Task
and Volunteer data.
Answer: E

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.12 Which three FileMaker Pro 11 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose three.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed Timestamp field
C. A Text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored Calculation field
E. Globally stored Number field placed in a portal
F. A Container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: ADE

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NO.13 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: BE

FileMaker   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305

NO.14 Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker 11 database, where Employee, Manager, and
Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in portals
without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. a portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
B. a portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
C. a portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
D. a portal of the classes that have been attended by a trainer's direct reports
E. a portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager's direct reports
Answer: CD

FileMaker examen   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.15 Which three are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in FileMaker
Pro 11? (Choose three.)
A. Existing value
B. Member of value list
C. Strict data type: Integer
D. Strict data type: Time of Day
E. Strict data type: Alphanumeric
F. Minimum number of characters
Answer: ABD

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.16 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 11? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both.
Answer: DE

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.17 A table in a FileMaker Pro 11 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
D. The user will see the custom error message, but in the case of an import, overriding the error is not
allowed and no records are imported.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.18 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may be indexed.
B. All non-text data types are converted to text.
C. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation.
D. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL.
E. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.19 Which script trigger could provide the functionality to prevent invalid data from being committed while
allowing the ability to revert the record?
A. OnObjectSave
B. OnObjectExit
C. OnObjectModify
D. OnObjectValidate
Answer: D

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.20 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 11 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
B. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
C. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
D. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of join criteria can be used.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: BE

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Code d'Examen: VCP-410
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410 examen   VCP-410

NO.2 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410 examen   certification VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.3 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410   certification VCP-410   VCP-410 examen

NO.4 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410   certification VCP-410

NO.5 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.6 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410   certification VCP-410

NO.7 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

VMware   certification VCP-410   VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.8 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410   VCP-410 examen   VCP-410 examen   certification VCP-410

NO.9 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.11 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.13 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.14 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410   VCP-410

NO.15 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

certification VMware   VCP-410   VCP-410   VCP-410 examen   VCP-410

NO.18 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.19 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.20 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.1 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway
running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.2 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool.
What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.3 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen

NO.4 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the
traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access
Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.5 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-915-70   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.6 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70

NO.7 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and
IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other
R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that
may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen

NO.8 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning
and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge
appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.9 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70   certification 156-915-70

NO.10 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a
site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70 examen

NO.11 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70

NO.12 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.13 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.14 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings.
What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70 examen   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen

NO.15 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall.
What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70 examen   certification 156-915-70   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70 examen

NO.16 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to
detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a
host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70

NO.17 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen

NO.18 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces
(VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   certification 156-915-70

NO.19 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection
was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen

NO.20 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must
you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70

NO.21 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all
of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-915-70   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.22 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation
policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen

NO.23 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access
is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it
could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.24 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70 examen   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.25 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform
content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   certification 156-915-70

NO.26 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.27 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She
wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to
prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make
sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance
impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance
impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.28 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning
specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70   certification 156-915-70

NO.29 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup
purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70 examen   156-915-70 examen

NO.30 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall
configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office
and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the
system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management
Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best
answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the
first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

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