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Code d'Examen: SY0-401
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 512 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CD0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA CDIA+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 255 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CV0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 261 Q&As

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NO.1 A title company wishes to scope out its residential mortgage packaging business process. All of
the mortgage packets are internally received at a central office. How should a consultant next
proceed in the identification phase?
A. Locate key stakeholder groups and observe the workflow in action
B. Conduct focus groups with members of each department
C. Develop a detailed process workflow and refer back to all the participating decision makers
D. Conduct an electronic survey to all the customers employees documenting the responses in a
project database
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company needs to scan 5,000 three-page documents every Monday. Each document is 65
KB in size. What is the annual storage requirement?
A. 8.2 MB
B. 16.5 MB
C. 16.1 GB
D. 32.5 GB
Answer: C

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NO.3 The needs to send scanned forms to various remote offices. They receive and scan 100 forms
a day.
Approximately how long would it take to transmit 100 50KB images using a 56Kbps modem
assuming a 10% throughput reduction for overhead?
A. 8 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 26 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company needs to store 500 two-page documents every day. Each document is 50 KB. What
storage capacity is required for one month, assuming 21.5 days per month?
A. 525 MB
B. 651 MB
C. 1.05 GB
D. 5.25 GB
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer: A

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NO.6 The processes a very large number of invoices daily that are of non-standard sized and
different
thickness. Which of the following is the most important criterion for selecting a scanner for me ?
A. ADF
B. Lamps
C. High Speed
D. Despeckling
Answer: A

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NO.7 An end-user wants a user interface that is easy to personalize, will allow for new applications
to be added, and will allow for inter-application communication. Which of the following interfaces
will meet these requirements?
A. A portal
B. A browser
C. A customer Windows client
D. A Java client written with JavaServer Pages (JSP)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A change control plan is concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. responding to the factors that create scope change.
B. determining that a scope change has occurred.
C. documenting baseline project plan assumptions.
D. managing the actual modifications when and if any occur.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 220-702
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition))
Questions et réponses: 422 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ADR-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Mobile App Security+ Certification Exam (Android Edition))
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a reason to take mobile app security seriously when developing a
social networking app that does NOT accept payments? (Select TWO).
A. PCI-DSS regulations
B. Consumer privacy expectations and regulations
C. HIPAA regulations
D. FIPS compliance
E. Company reputation
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which of the following will LEAST likely be detected through source code analysis?
A. Improper certificate validation
B. Buffer overflow vulnerability
C. Improper build process
D. Hardcoded credentials
Answer: C

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NO.3 When handling sensitive data with Android apps, which of the following storage strategies is
MOST secure?
A. Store data on device using encryption, with encryption key managed on the server
B. Prompt users to enable encryption
C. Store sensitive data locally in XML protected with file permissions
D. Store sensitive data on the server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is fundamental to MOST transport layer encryption implementations?
A. Device passcode
B. Obfuscation
C. HTTPS
D. Keychain
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following attempts to inhibit an application from being trojanized and
proliferating?
A. Tamper protection in code.
B. Encrypting config file.
C. Ensure appropriate permissions are deployed to every component.
D. Login credentials delivered over network with HTTPS.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following techniques are useful in a secure software development process?
(Select TWO).
A. Cross platform compatibility testing with HTML5
B. Using hardware encryption to protect all data on the device
C. Static code analysis
D. Abuse/misuse case analysis
E. Implementation of two-factor authentication
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following accurately explains why many people criticize the use of a unique
hardware ID such as IMEI/MEID to identify users? (Select TWO).
A. The hardware ID can be traced to an individual user and help track activity over time and across
apps
B. The hardware ID unlocks encryption on the device
C. Companies encode email addresses directly into the hardware ID
D. Hardware ID values are easily predictable
E. Users cannot selectively block apps' access to it
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Which of the following can be performed to find security design flaws in mobile apps prior to
writing code?
A. Threat modeling
B. Penetration testing
C. Static source code analysis
D. Dynamic validation testing
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CLO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C

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NO.7 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: SGO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
Questions et réponses: 537 Q&As

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NO.1 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology
and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In
recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have
increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are under-utilized. What is the most likely
explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols
B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities
C. multiple process login failures
D. over utilization of one or more ISLs
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.5 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.6 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other
changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload
B. hardware compression
C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput
D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology
Answer: C

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NO.8 The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result
from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A,C,E

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Code d'Examen: SK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 325 Q&As

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NO.1 Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it is unreachable
across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day.
Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?
A. Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Install a new NIC on the server.
D. Verify that network cables are connected.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes how server virtualization can cut down IT costs?
A. Server virtualization increases server application performance allowing productivity to be increased.
B. Server virtualization simplifies server administration and reduces the IT department staffing needs.
C. Server virtualization implements higher security measures at the server OS level reducing the need for
other security implementations.
D. Server virtualization is a more efficient use of hardware for multiple servers reducing the resource
utilization.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following must be done to properly conduct testing of the data backup portion of a disaster
recovery plan?
A. Perform an integrity test of backup media.
B. Verify data on backup media can be read.
C. Verify that backups have occurred and were successful via the logs.
D. Restore backed up data to a test server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and
stores data on separate servers?
A. Full
B. Disk imaging
C. Incremental
D. Tape backup
Answer: B

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NO.5 A stripe set of maximum size is to be configured using two physical disks. One disk has 150GB and the
other has 250GB in unallocated space. Which of the following will be the size of the stripe set.?
A. 150GB
B. 300GB
C. 400GB
D. 500GB
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following technologies allows multiple logical subnets to span an entire physical switched
network?
A. ARP
B. DMZ
C. VLAN
D. VPN
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. Flash
D. SCSI
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount
server?
A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives
B. Blade servers offer more rack density
C. Blade servers are typically faster
D. Blade servers allow for more RAM
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JK0-017
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 402 Q&As

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NO.1 A project has been cancelled during the execution phase. Which of the following steps should be
taken?
A. Continue to work the project.
B. Finish the project charter and project plan.
C. Complete lessons learned document.
D. Develop the project transition plan.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following tools would be used to determine the relationship between two changed
variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: C

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NO.7 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together. This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.8 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HT0-101
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (HTI+ Residential Systems....)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following use high-frequency sound?
A. Occupancy sensors
B. Ultrasonic sensors
C. Photosensors
D. Passive Infrared (PIR) sensors
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following ports must be open to allow HTTP traffic through a firewall?
A. 23
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.3 The technician is onsite to install a security camera system and has successfully
configured the camera and video monitor. The customer has a request to attach the
camera to the customer's television.
Which of the following devices would the technician need to install to connect the
security camera to the television?
A. Splitter
B. Coupler
C. BALUN
D. High pass filter
Answer: B

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NO.4 A client requests to have two sub-woofers installed to create stereo effect.
Which of the following statements is the best response a technician can make?
A. Two sub-woofers would produce too much bass.
B. Another amp is required to power the second sub-woofer.
C. Two sub-woofers are unnecessary and would cost too much.
D. The sub-woofer's sound is too low to have an effect on stereo imaging.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The maximum recommended cable distance between stations for 10Base-T Ethernet on
Category 3 cabling is:
A. 50 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.6 A client has a 100 watt stereo receiver. The client has purchased speakers rate at
200 watts. The receiver keeps shutting off, and the distortion is high.
Which of the following is the best explanation?
A. The speakers need more power than 100 watts.
B. The strands of wire are touching.
C. The speaker cable is the wrong gauge.
D. The protective fuses in the receiver are too weak.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following types of network cables can support a maximum segment length
of 2,000 meters?
A. Fiber optic
B. Thin coaxial
C. Unshielded twisted pair
D. Thick coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.8 How many B channels are included in an integrated services digital network (ISDN)
BRI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 23
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following organizations sets standards for heating, ventilation, and air
conditioning in the United States?
A. IEEE
B. NAHB
C. IALD
D. ASHRAE
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following wires of a cable are used for transmitting or receiving data on a
10/100Base-T network?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1,2, 3, and 6
C. 1, 2, 8, and 8
D. 5, 6, 7, and 8
Answer: B

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NO.11 When troubleshooting a lighting problem in an existing home, the home technology
integrator differentiates between low-voltage and high-voltage lighting control by
examining the:
A. Incandescent bulbs
B. Fluorescent bulbs
C. Differences in the wall and ceiling mounts
D. Cable supplying power to the lighting fixture
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable used in television and satellite
installations?
A. RG-6
B. RG-58
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-45
Answer: A

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NO.13 A xxxx technician is on-site to configure a home security alarm system. The
technician needs to create a configuration that alerts the off-site customer
monitoring center whenever the front and side doors are armed and opened.
Which of the following devices does the technician need to install on the doors to have
them trip the alarm?
A. Rug sensors
B. Motion sensor
C. Magnetic contacts
D. Closed circuit TV
Answer: C

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NO.14 An individual has connected a turntable to a stereo receiver. When a record is
played, the system emits a load hum.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The cartridge needs to be replaced.
B. The speakers are too close together.
C. The turntable is plugged into an auxiliary port.
D. The ground wire on the turntable is disconnected.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Three communicating thermostats installed in one residence is referred to as a:
A. 3-Damper system
B. 3-Room system
C. 3-Zone system
D. 3-Process system
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following types of sensors are the most commonly used, both inside and
outside of the home, and detect the presence of humans based on emitted radiation?
A. Passive Infrared (PIR) sensors
B. Ultrasonic sensors
C. Microwave sensors
D. Charged Coupled Device (CCD) sensors
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following TCP/IP protocols is used to manage the assignment of IP
addresses?
A. Domain name service (DNS)
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Simple network management protocol (SNMP)
Answer: C

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NO.18 There are two-four pair cables run from the auxiliary disconnect outlet to the
network interface device. The homeowner orders a fifth line.
The color-pair of the fifth line is:
A. orange - white/orange
B. blue - white/blue
C. slate - white/slate
D. green - white/green
Answer: C

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NO.19 Covert video cameras can be legally installed:
A. Anywhere the client decides.
B. Anywhere there is a potential for high-crime volume.
C. In places where there is no expectation of privacy.
D. In places where permissions has been given by the owner.
Answer: C

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NO.20 The wiring scheme for data cables terminated in a home is:
A. 568A
B. 568B
C. RS422
D. RS485
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: TK0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer))
Questions et réponses: 247 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.3 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

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NO.5 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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NO.8 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

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NO.9 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

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NO.11 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.15 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

CompTIA   TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.17 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.19 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.20 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 220-701
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009))
Questions et réponses: 388 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following Network cables would a technician find on RJ-45 connector?
A. UTP
B. Coaxial
C. USB
D. Fiber
Answer: A

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NO.2 On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader?
A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices
B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices
C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices
D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices
Answer: C

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NO.3 A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the
system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers?
A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website
B. The manufacturer ¯ s w ebs it e
C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List
D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following ports does an impact printer use?
A. Wi
Fi
B. PS/2
C. USB
D. LPT
Answer: D

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NO.5 A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal
hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be
stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem?
A. Format the external USB hare drive.
B. Turn off the external monitor
C. Disconnect the external monitor
D. Remove and reset the laptop battery
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when
installing RAM?
A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components
B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post
C. Wearing a grounded wristband
D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-701   220-701   certification 220-701   220-701

NO.7 Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD?
A. Celeron
B. Athlon
C. Pentium
D. Core 2 Quad
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following will BEST conserve resources and prolong equipment life?
A. Firmware updates
B. Power Management
C. Disk Defragmenter
D. Clean with a lint-free cloth
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification 220-701   certification 220-701   220-701

NO.9 A technician is installing a program on a Windows Vista computer and the installation fails. Which of
the following is NEXT step?
A. Reinstall Windows XP on the computer.
B. Contact the program ¯ s m anu f ac t u r e r.
C. Run the installer as an administrator.
D. Upgrade to Windows 7
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-701   220-701

NO.10 An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test
page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to
trouble shoot the issue.?
A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory.
B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output.
C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer.
D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following functions can be performed by using the msconfig command?
A. Update the product key information for the Microsoft OS.
B. Prevent specific programs from beginning at the system startup.
C. Find specific information about the system hardware configuration.
D. Configure the boot order of the system hardware devices.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email?
A. SFTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. POP3
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following describes keeping the desk area free of trip hazards such as loose cables?
A. Network interface
B. Client Configuration
C. Cable management
D. Personal Area Network (PAN)
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and
Trojans?
A. Spam Blocker
B. Antivirus
C. Anti Spyware
D. Anti Adware
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following printer types requires the use of toner?
A. Impact
B. Inkjet
C. Laser
D. Thermal
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-701   220-701 examen

NO.16 A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power
supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults?
A. Anti-static wrist straps
B. Compressed air
C. Anti-static wipes
D. Operating system rescue disk
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification 220-701   220-701   220-701 examen   certification 220-701   220-701

NO.17 Which of the following would a technician use to install a manufacturer ¯ s i m age on a no t ebook? ( Se l ec t
two)
A. Recovery CD
B. System Restore Utility
C. Access a recent data backup
D. Utilize a Recovery Agent feature
E. Factory recover partition
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which of the following is LAST step of troubleshooting theory?
A. Establish a plan of action to restore the problem and implement the solution.
B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Question the user and identify user charges.
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-701   certification 220-701   220-701 examen   220-701

NO.19 Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of devices connected per IEEE 1394 controller?
A. 4
B. 63
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B

CompTIA   220-701   220-701   220-701

NO.20 A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to
restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the
following is problem?
A. The technician is not in administrator mode.
B. System restore is turned off.
C. System 32 folder has been removed.
D. System restore is not supported on the OS version.
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification 220-701   220-701   220-701 examen

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Code d'Examen: EK0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

EK0-001 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/EK0-001.html

NO.1 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.4 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.5 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.6 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.7 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.9 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.10 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.11 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.14 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.15 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.16 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.17 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.18 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

CompTIA   EK0-001   certification EK0-001   EK0-001

NO.19 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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