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Code d'Examen: HP0-090
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX Virtual Server Environment)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 HP Serviceguard Manager can manage nodes that run which operating systems? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX v11i
C. HP-UX 10.20
D. OpenVMS v7.x
E. Window 2003 Advanced Server
F. Windows 2003 Exchange Server
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Your company has an installed base of servers with an average utilization of 10% and an average
peak utilization of 40%.
What is the best solution to implement to improve server utilization and reduce costs?
A. high availability - increasing the number of redundant servers
B. patching - updating every operating system instance to the latest revision
C. server upgrades - replacing old servers with newer, more powerful servers
D. consolidation - stacking multiple applications and/or operating systems on fewer servers
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with the correct I/O resource granularity.
Answer:

NO.4 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the partitioning components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. vPars
B. nPars
C. containers
D. dynamic LPars
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. HP System Insight Manager
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
H. HP Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: ABGH

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NO.6 Your company has a lot of under-utilized HP Integrity servers. However, whenever a new project starts,
it takes weeks to months to provision (plan, get approval, order, install, and configure) a new server.
How can the HP Virtual Server Environment (HP VSE) solutions help shorten the time to deploy a new
operating system instance?
A. They allow you to order servers with unpurchased capacity.
B. They allow you to outsource some of your peak computing requirements to HP.
C. They help plan new servers so that the server is large enough to handle the workload.
D. They allow you to identify free capacity on your existing servers and provision new operating systems
in that capacity.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has consolidated six L2000 servers to Virtual Partitions in an rx8620 as shown in the diagram.
The Virtual Partitions are managed by Global Workload Manager (gWLM).
Which commands can be used to determine how many processors are allocated to the Mater vPar?
(Select two.)
A. vparstatus on the Mater vPar
B. gwlmstatus on the Mater vPar
C. gwlm monitor on the Mater vPar
D. vparstatus on the gWLM central management server
E. gwlm monitor --workload=Mater on the gWLM central management server
Answer: AE

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NO.8 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating processors within a single OS image
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where can Secure Resource Partitions (that use HP Process Resource Manager) run? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Partitions
B. Linux on Integrity
C. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Host
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Guest
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which high availability components are part of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP Sysplex
B. HP Hyperplex
C. HP Metrocluster
D. HP Serviceguard
E. HP Continentalclusters
F. HP Veritas Cluster Server
G. HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite
Answer: CDEG

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NO.11 What are the intelligent control products in the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP VirtualCenter
B. HP Virtualization Engine
C. HP Server Migration Pack
D. HP Integrity Essentials iLO
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
F. HP Integrity Essentials VMotion
G. HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
H. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
I. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
J. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: EHIJ

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
You want to manage Bullseye and Hannah vPars with HP Global Workload Manager (gWLM). You want
to ensure that, if possible, utilization does not exceed 85% for either workload; even if it means activating
Temporary Instant Capacity. In addition, you also want to maximize the flexibility of the solution.
How should you set up the gWLM policies?
A. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
B. Own Borrow policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 8 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
C. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 7 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
D. Percent Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
Answer: C

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NO.13 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. PRM with fair share scheduler groups
B. gWLM with fair share scheduler groups
C. WLM with a processor set for each vPar
D. gWLM with Own Borrow policies on each vPar
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which UNIX virtualization solution provides one extra processor for one hour and is available uniquely
from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. permanently activating a processor within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating a processor within a single OS image for an hour
D. flexible partitioning of multiple OS images with a single processor granularity
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which command line interface (CLI) command may be used to start (power on) a virtual machine?
(Select two.)
A. hpvmstart
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvmcreate
D. hpvmmodify
E. hpvmconsole
Answer: AE

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NO.16 Which HP partitioning products will run inside an nPartition? (Select three.)
A. VMware
B. containers
C. Dynamic LPars
D. Virtual Partitions
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. Secure Resource Partitions
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: DFG

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NO.17 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
no Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. gWLM with processor sets
B. gWLM with Own Borrow policies
C. PRM with the fair share scheduler
D. WLM with Temporary Instant Capacity processors
Answer: B

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NO.18 Your company purchases servers for a single application and normally sizes them for the anticipated
maximum load expected in three years. However, many times the actual application never grows beyond
the initial size.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment component reduces costs while ensuring that the capacity is
available if the application grows in size?
A. HP Partitioning solutions
B. HP Utility Pricing solutions
C. HP High Availability solutions
D. HP Virtual Server Environment Suite
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that can run on a single physical CPU core with HP
Integrity Virtual Machines.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with its isolation level. There is more than one
correct answer.
Answer:

NO.21 What is the HP definition of virtualization?
A. the process of abstracting applications and operating systems from physical resources
B. an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply automatically
meets demand
C. an approach that allows you to run multiple operating systems at the same time on the same server
without rebooting or repartitioning your disk
D. the process of presenting a logical grouping or subset of computing resources so that they can be
accessed in ways that are different than the physical configuration
Answer: B

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NO.22 In which server infrastructure can you deploy the HP Virtual Server Environment?
A. HP ProLiant servers
B. HP NonStop servers
C. Unix servers from all vendors
D. HP Integrity and HP 9000 servers
Answer: D

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NO.23 There are multiple methods for configuring WBEM authentication credentials for managed systems in
HP Systems Insight Manager.
Select any two of these methods from the options below. (Select two.)
A. mxinitconfig command
B. vseinitconfig command
C. mxagentconfig command
D. mxnodesecurity command
E. First Time Wizard user interface
F. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Discovery user interface
G. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Global Protocol Settings user interface
H. Options -> Protocol Settings -> System Protocol Settings user interface
Answer: DG

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NO.24 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus IBM pSseries servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
C. single processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: D

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NO.25 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each product with its minimum size.
Answer:

NO.26 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of-day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which virtualization solution can automatically provide one extra processor for one hour and is available
uniquely from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. Workload Manager to activate iCAP processors
B. PRM to dynamically increase pSet size for one hour
C. Global Workload Manager to activate TiCAP processors for one hour
D. Partition Manager to shift one processor into the needed partition for one hour
Answer: C

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NO.27 What are the utility pricing components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. Pay-per-use
B. Trial Capacity
C. Instant Capacity
D. On/Off Capacity
E. Standby Capacity
F. Grid Compute Utility
G. Pay-per-transaction
H. Global Instant Capacity
I. Temporary Instant Capacity
J. Capacity Upgrade On Demand
Answer: ACHI

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NO.28 What are key benefits of server virtualization?
A. improved reliability and high availability, lower total cost of ownership
B. higher server utilization, increased time to production for new systems
C. higher server utilization, lower total cost of ownership, better application performance
D. system administration is simplified due to less complexity, better application performance
Answer: C

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NO.29 Click the Task Button.
Using drag and drop, match each virtualization solution with the correct description.
Answer:

NO.30 A customer has several large mission critical workloads, each having different OS tuneables and
application patch levels.
They want to implement a midrange Integrity server solution and use partitioning to provide the highest
levels of isolation.
Which VSE approach is best?
A. nPartitions
B. Virtual Partitions
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Process Resource Manager
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-003
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Service Desk 5.x)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 How do Service Call records and Work Order records differ with respect to their link to a Configuration
Item?
A.A Service Call can be linked to multiple Configuration Items, while a Work Order can only be linked to
one Configuration Item.
B.A Work Order can be linked to multiple Configuration Items, while a Service Call can only be linked to
one Configuration Item.
C.A Work Order can only be related to Configuration Items via a Change record.
D.A Configuration Item cannot be linked to a Service Call and a Work Order simultaneously.
Answer:B

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NO.2 What types of persons can be registered in a person record?
A.employees and callers
B.employees and specialists
C.external contacts and employees
D.any type of person
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which capability allows for the exporting of HP OpenView Service Desk configuration information from
one HP OpenView Service Desk database and the importing into another?
A.Archiving
B.Data Exchange
C.Configuration Exchange
D.Failover
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which statements are TRUE regarding Workgroups? Select TWO.
A.Workgroups are used for object records assignment.
B.Workgroups are used to create departments in organizations.
C.A member of a parent workgroup is also a member of the related child workgroup.
D.A person can be a member of multiple workgroups.
Answer:A D

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NO.5 When implementing Incident Management with HP OpenView Service Desk, what authorizations must
be defined when using Roles? Select THREE.
A.Forms & Templates
B.Objects
C.Scheduled Tasks
D.Filters
E.Workspaces
Answer:A B E

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NO.6 Which statement about the Service Call Object in OpenView Service Desk is TRUE?
A.When a Service Call is closed it will be automatically added to the FAQ section on the web interface.
B.The deadline of a Service Call is determined by the priority-duration code table settings.
C.Service Calls can only be modified and closed by Service Desk Named Users.
D.Service Calls can only be received through the web interface and by telephone.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which two events are normally entered as Service Calls in HP OpenView Service Desk? Select TWO.
A.incidents from the IT infrastructure
B.Requests For Change (RFC)
C.automatic events from other applications
D.Requests For Information (RFI)
Answer:B D

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NO.8 The Checklist Wizard _______.
A.provides a list of regularly scheduled administrative tasks necessary to maintain the health of the
Service Desk application.
B.provides the Help Desk agent a list of questions to ask a customer when opening a specified type of
Service Call.
C.allows for the ease of Data Exchange configuration.
D.is used as part of the Configuration Exchange function.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which levels of organization can be stored in an organization record?
A.external and internal companies
B.internal companies and workgroups
C.companies, departments and employees
D.all organizational levels
Answer:D

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NO.10 When exchanging configuration data between HP OpenView Service Desk Management Servers, what
requirements are essential? Select TWO.
A.The Management Servers must be the exact same version of Service Desk
B.Configuration Exchange Filters MUST be defined and associated with Filter Groups
C.The Service Desk Management Server MUST be rebooted after a Configuration Exchange Import
D.Duplicate Object entries must be removed in the Service Desk performing the Configuration Exchange
Import
Answer:A B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-085
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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NO.2 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

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NO.4 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

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NO.5 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

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NO.7 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

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NO.8 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

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NO.10 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

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NO.13 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

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NO.14 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

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NO.15 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

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NO.16 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

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NO.17 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

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NO.18 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

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NO.19 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y20
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 An existing 1000Base-T link between two ProCurve 5406zl switches at a small university is configured
as a member of the faculty VLAN. After the IT manager configured a four-port trunk between the switches,
members of the college's faculty reported that they can no longer access servers that were available
before the trunk was installed. Which statement describes a likely solution for this problem?
A. A new link must be configured for the VLAN because the maximum number of VLANs that the port
trunk can support has been exceeded.
B. The port trunk must be configured for tagged membership in the faculty VLAN because port trunks do
not support untagged VLANs.
C. The switch-to-switch link must be added to the port trunk because the switches cannot simultaneously
support port trunks and single-port links between switches.
D. The port trunk must be configured for membership in the faculty VLAN because the trunk ports are
automatically assigned to the default VLAN as untagged members.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are configuring spanning tree on ProCurve switches at a customer site. Why would you configure
a particular switch to have a higher bridge priority? (Select two.)
A. to force all of the switch's ports to be blocked
B. to make it less likely that the switch's ports will be blocked
C. to cause the switch to remove BPDUs from the network
D. to make it more likely that the switch will become the root
E. to increase the path cost of all switch links
Answer: BD

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NO.3 A ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) server located at an insurance company has been reported as not
discovering any manageable devices except those on the subnet where the PCM+ Management Server
resides. Which statement is true about this behavior?
A. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery messages do not cross router interfaces.
B. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery uses Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which only
survives one switch-to-switch hop.
C. This behavior indicates that PCM+ has been configured with an incorrect default gateway.
D. This behavior is normal because by default, automatic discovery only occurs on the subnet that the
PCM+ management server belongs to.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which ProCurve CLI command enables you to move from the Manager level to the Global
Configuration level?
A. global-su
B. su-enable
C. globalcfg
D. sw-disable
E. configure
Answer: E

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NO.5 A customer that is installing several ProCurve 3500yl switches asks about the Link Layer Discovery
Protocol (LLDP) support capabilities on these switches. Which statement is true about LLDP operation?
A. It is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. The ports placed in Blocked state by Spanning Tree Protocol prevent LLDP messages from being
transmitted.
D. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system name and MAC address of neighbors.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about mesh switches configured with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
connected to non-meshed switches in the same spanning tree domain?
A. The mesh switches appear as a set of multiple blade switch units to the non-mesh switches.
B. The mesh switches cannot join a non-mesh topology even if all switches support Spanning Tree
Protocol.
C. A mesh topology appears as a normal cascaded topology with ports blocked by the Spanning Tree
Protocol services.
D. The mesh switches appear as a single logical switch to non-meshed switches.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The IT manager of a large call center has configured four ProCurve Switch 5412zl's for HP Switch
Meshing. How does a switch that is part of the mesh handle broadcast and multicast traffic that originates
from a port outside the mesh?
A. It will replace broadcast and multicast addresses with the unicast MAC addresses of its neighbors in
the mesh.
B. It will forward both broadcast and multicast traffic over ports that form the loop-free topology
established by the meshing protocol.
C. It will flood broadcast and multicast traffic through meshed and non-meshed ports.
D. It will send a query to its directly connected neighbors to find out whether any of the neighbors'
connected hosts can respond to broadcasts and multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A ProCurve University IT manager is on-site with a task to configure six new ProCurve switches for
in-band management access. Which connectivity method will facilitate this? (Select two.)
A. Telnet
B. SNMP
C. menu interface
D. serial console
E. XMODEM
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which configuration steps are required to enable a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to synchronize its clock
with a SNTP server located on a different IP subnet? (Select three.)
A. Enable SNTP.
B. Enable TimeP.
C. Define a default IP gateway.
D. Configure for SNTP broadcast mode.
E. Enter the IP address of the SNTP server.
Answer: ACE

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NO.10 All of the ports that will be included in a newly developed mesh of four ProCurve 3500yl Series
switches are configured for membership in customer VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the
VLAN configuration?
A. The mesh ports will only be able to retain membership in a single untagged VLAN.
B. The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
C. The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
D. The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until the VLAN assignments are manually
configured.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select three.)
A. security
B. availability
C. convergence
D. reliability
E. upgradeability
F. mobility
G. cost-effectiveness
Answer: ACF

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NO.12 What is the maximum number of port trunk groups a customer can define on a ProCurve Switch
5412zl being used to aggregate traffic at the distribution level?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: D

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NO.13 In a ProCurve Switch 5300xl, you change the following using the CLI:
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# configure
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password manager
New password for Manager: *********
Please retype new password for Manager: ********
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password operator
New password for Operator: *********
Please retype new password for Operator: *********
The new password for Manager is HPinvent# and the new password for Operator is hpINVENT!
Which login name and password are needed for the web interface if the administrator requires read/write
access? (Select two.)
A. Manager
B. hpINVENT!
C. HPinvent#
D. Operator
Answer: AC

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NO.14 You must test and qualify new ProCurve switch software in a production network limited to a single
switch. Which two tasks combined enable you to test and qualify the new software without losing the
existing qualified production software? (Select two.)
A. Boot the switch to the secondary flash.
B. Upload the new software to a VLAN flash.
C. Boot the switch to the new software.
D. Dump the qualified software to a file and upload the new software.
E. Reset the VLAN to boot to the new software in the VLAN flash.
F. Upload the new software to secondary flash.
Answer: AF

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NO.15 A customer inquires about configuring the IP address on a new ProCurve 3500yl switch. What can you
do to configure this information on the switch? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the switch using the Telnet interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign a
box-wide IP address.
B. Leave the switch at its factory default settings and allow it to acquire an IP address, mask, and default
gateway from a DHCP server.
C. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and
assign a box-wide IP address and mask.
D. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, enable
DHCP, and assign an address scope.
E. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign
an IP address and mask within the context of the VLAN used for management access .
Answer: BE

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NO.16 When designing a wireless network, it is very important to consider the frequency range in which the
network operates and the maximum throughput of the network to ensure that it can meet the customer's
needs. Which wireless LAN standards specify frequency and maximum throughput of wireless networks?
(Select three.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11e
E. 802.11f
F. 802.11g
G. 802.11i
Answer: ABF

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NO.17 An IT administrator enters the show flash command on a ProCurve switch. What will this command
display?
A. the configurations on the switch
B. the current version of software running
C. the configuration available in memory
D. a list of all software versions stored on the switch
Answer: D

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NO.18 What information, normally associated with the wireless network name, is required by the wireless
clients in order to establish connections to the access point?
A. pre-shared key
B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Service Set Identifier
D. shared secret
Answer: C

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NO.19 The IT manager of a medium-sized retail store is configuring a wireless network. As a first step in
securing the wireless network, the manager decides to enable the Closed system parameter on each of
the ProCurve Access Point 530 devices. What is the main difference between Open and Closed wireless
networks?
A. In an Open system, the SSID is advertised to clients; in a Closed system the SSID it is not advertised.
B. A Closed system requires the client's wireless MAC address be configured on the access point; an
Open system does not require MAC authentication.
C. A Closed system requires the client to have a pre-shared key; an Open system does not require a
pre-shared key.
D. An Open system requires the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication; a Closed system does not
require the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. web interface
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. ProCurve Manager interface
Answer: AC

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NO.21 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. Time-Sync Wizard
B. CLI Wizard
C. IP Address Wizard
D. Configuration Wizard
E. Switch Update Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.22 After connecting five ProCurve Switch 5300xl switches, you find that Spanning Tree Protocol is
enabled by default and that some switch ports are in the Blocking state. Which statement best describes
the default Spanning Tree operation of ProCurve 5300xl switches? (Select two.)
A. All the switches use the standard version of Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. All ports are set to Fast Uplink mode, and because of the enhanced mode, their port status is shown as
"Blocking."
C. All the switches use Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol.
D. All the switches use Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
E. If any of the five switches' firmware supports Multiple Spanning Tree, all other switches automatically
switch to the Multiple Spanning Tree mode.
F. The switches will interoperate with neighboring switches that use Spanning Tree Protocol or Rapid
Spanning Tree Protocol.
Answer: CF

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NO.23 When considering the following options to manage a new installation of ProCurve network devices,
which options will support ProCurve Manager as a central management platform? (Select two.)
A. IBM p-series Server running IBM AIX 5L
B. HP Integrity Server running HP-UX 11i v3
C. HP Business Desktop running Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. HP ProLiant server running SuSE Linux Enterprise Server
E. HP ProLiant server running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: CE

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NO.24 In a Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol network using six ProCurve Switch 3500yl switches, you notice
that multiple switches have declared themselves Root in one of the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
instances. How can you correct this problem?
A. Modify the port priorities on all switch-to-switch links so that one switch has the highest priority value.
B. Set the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol parameters to use the switch with the highest hardware MAC
address as the Root switch.
C. Trace VLAN routing topology and modify the VLAN assignments on the switches so that they match.
D. Change the bridge discovery priorities on the switches to distinct values.
E. Check and modify the switches so that they have the same configuration name and revision number.
Answer: E

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NO.25 Which command must be entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch to ensure recent configuration
changes will not be lost when the switch is restarted?
A. write memory
B. save config
C. save flash -overwrite
D. commit change
E. write flash -overwrite
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the free trial period for ProCurve Manager Plus?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which issues found in legacy core-oriented networking solutions can be resolved by migrating to
ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select two.)
A. Legacy core switches lack the capacity for implementing Layer 2 and Layer 3 redundancy
technologies.
B. Traffic forwarding must pass through core switch before routing, security, and prioritization tasks can be
performed.
C. Emerging protocols and standards such as IPv6 cannot be supported by legacy core switches.
D. As each switch is added at the edge, it increases the decision making load in the core and constrains
scalability.
E. Routers in core-oriented networks must perform more complicated packet manipulation than routers in
edge-oriented networks.
Answer: BD

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NO.28 What is the effect when switch ports are placed in Blocking state by Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward any secured
Telnet traffic.
B. The switch will only forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will not receive any
network user traffic through those ports.
C. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward traffic related
to Link Aggregation Control Protocol and Bridge Protocol Data Units.
D. The ports are completely blocked and marked Not Used (zero transmission).
Answer: C

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NO.29 When an IT manager of ProCurve University is configuring a ProCurve switch using the CLI, what is
indicated by the command prompt Switch_1A#?
A. The switch is located on floor 1, building A.
B. Host name for the switch has not been defined.
C. Current context is the global configuration level.
D. Current context is the manager level.
Answer: D

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NO.30 While presenting an overview of ProCurve Manager at a customer site, you differentiate between the
features of ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) and ProCurve Manager. Which features are only included in
PCM+? (Select two.)
A. VLAN management
B. alerts
C. automatic discovery
D. scheduled software updates
E. network topology mapping
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M23
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Business Availability Center Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

HP0-M23 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-M23.html

NO.1 How are BPM monitoring locations determined? (Select two.)
A.by distant locations
B.by random selection
C.by high user populations
D.by lowest cost to implement
E.by high return on investment
ANSWER: CE

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NO.2 What information does the Status Snapshot Report provide?
A.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
B.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
C.worst availability by transaction, worst availability by location, worst availability by application, slowest
applications
D.worst response time by transaction, worst response time by location, worst response time by
application, slowest applications
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 In a typical organization, who manages the troubleshooting of IT infrastructure?
A.BAC Administrator
B.IT Service Manager
C.Application Manager
D.Operations Engineer
ANSWER: D

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NO.4 What is the meaning of the origin attribute that exists in each CI?
A.the BAC user that created the CI
B.the view in which the CI was created
C.the package from which the CIT was deployed
D.the data source or user that added the CI to the CMDB
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 What types of System Health are available?
A.only the BAC built-in System Health is available
B.Operations Center System Health and BAC built-in System Health
C.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Sitescope
D.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Real User Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 How do you navigate the user interface to enter a license in BAC?
A.Navigate to Admin>My BAC>License Management and enter a new license.
B.Accept the basic, built-in factory license as part of the installation phase of BAC.
C.Navigate to Help>About HP Business Availability Center>Registration and enter a new license.
D.Navigate to Admin>Platform Administration>Setup and Maintenance>License Management and enter
a new license.
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 How would you create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor when defining a
profile?
A.Use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process.
B.Use the Monitor Deployment Wizard to automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI.
C.Create a profile and use the attach CI option in the EUM Administration profile creation operation.
D.Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach the
monitor from within the view
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 What is the role of the built-in BAC System Health?
A.display in a dashboard view the status of all BAC components
B.measure BAC performance and display BAC resources consumption and usage
C.display in a graphical form all the components of BAC and the relationship between them
D.detect problems with data collectors, BAC database, and the servers on which BAC runs
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 What is the main function of the Report Repository?
A.store reports imported from other applications
B.store reports saved by users at a specific state
C.store reports saved by users with dynamic state
D.store reports specific to the Dashboard component of BAC
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Downloads page?
A.a location from which you can download BAC components
B.a location to which you can download tools for use with BAC
C.links to locations from which you can download BAC add-on monitors
D.a location within the BAC directory structure where you can store downloaded software
ANSWER: A

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NO.11 What is the purpose of Infrastructure Settings?
A.to configure the hardware settings of the BAC servers
B.to configure the look and feel of the BAC graphical user interface
C.to define the various settings which determine how BAC and its applications run
D.to configure the binding between BAC and the network interfaces on the BAC servers
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the session analyzer report?
A.to correlate between sessions, session groups and session users
B.to display user session data for applications configured for real user monitoring
C.to show the history of all closed sessions which were opened against the application configured
D.to display the status of the users that are currently using the application which is being monitored
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Which report types are available in the End User Management application?
A.Summary, Alerts, System Availability
B.User Defined, Business Process, Real User
C.Alerts, Network & Tools, Service Level, Business Process
D.Summary, Business Process, Real User, Status Snapshot
ANSWER: D

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NO.14 Which alert type can be configured to alert on a specific page, or screen, of a monitored application?
A.SLA alert
B.Paging alert
C.Sitescope alert
D.Event based alert
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 Which log files are used for troubleshooting SiteScope?
A.Alert, Error and Topaz_all.ejb
B.Run Monitor, HP BAC and Operator
C.Run Monitor, SiteScope_all and Operator
D.Topaz_all.ejb, NannyStatus and Jboss_boot
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 What is a context in Infrastructure Settings?
A.the source application that triggers a set of alarms
B.a group of foundations to which the same settings can be applied
C.a group of applications to which the same settings can be applied
D.an aid to separate all BAC configurable items into applications and foundations
ANSWER: D

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NO.17 How would you check the start-up status of BAC using the HP BAC Server Status?
A.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
B.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
C.on the gateway and the Data Processing server click on Start > Programs > HP BAC > Administration >
HP BAC Server Status
D.on the gateway and the Data Processing server navigate to \bin and activate the
HPBacServerStatus.exe program
ANSWER: C

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NO.18 How can you navigate to the web interface of a data collector (for example, BPM, Sitescope or RUM
Engine) without knowing its explicit name or IP address?
A.Write a query on the UCMDB to locate the data collector name and IP address in order to access it.
B.Navigate to "Admin>Platform>Data Collection>Data Collector Maintenance" and select the appropriate
tab.
C.Navigate to "Admin>End User Management Administration>Monitor" and locate the BPM you have just
installed.
D.Navigate to "Admin>Universal CMDB Administration>Source Manager" and edit the data collector
adapter to list all appropriate data collectors.
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 What does the data collector maintenance page in the Business Availability Center platform enable
you to do?
A.remotely install Sitescope instances on specific servers.
B.manage and maintain Sitescope, Business Process Monitor, and RUM
C.remotely install, manage and troubleshoot the operation of the Discovery Probe
D.manage and install Business Process Monitor and Real User Monitor probe instances on specific
servers
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 Business Availability Center is powered by a set of servers that are responsible for facilitating system
management, data handling, reporting, and alerting. Which servers are included within the Business
Availability Center basic framework? (Select two.)
A.Print Server
B.Data Server
C.Gateway Server
D.Discovery Server
E.Application Server
F.Data Processing Server
ANSWER: CF

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M24
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Operations Manager Software v8 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 You manually installed the agent software on a Windows node. When you look at the package
inventory on the server, this shows an empty list. What do you have to doto be able to see the
actual complete package inventory?
A.Execute 'Redeploy all'.
B.Execute 'opcsw -installed'.
C.Execute 'Synchronize packages' from the node pop-up menu.
D.Deploy a policy. This implicitly synchronizes the complete package inventory.
Correct:C

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of deployment jobs that are active for the same node?
A.1
B.5
C.10
D.12
Correct:A

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NO.3 You want to monitor the free disk space on a managed node. You want to get a critical message
the first time the free space is below 20%. If the disk free space stays below 20%, you want to get
warning messages. What is the easiest way to achieve this?
A.Use Scripting and store if the rule matched the first time or not in a SESSION variable.
B.Use the start action to create the critical message and the continue action to create the warning
message.
C.There is no special configuration necessary. If a threshold is violated multiple times, then warning
messages will be created automatically after
D.
E.Specify two threshold rules (using 20% both times). In the first rule, select 'first time only' and create the
critical message. In the second rule,
F.
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which communication technology is used by policy management to deploy policies to a DCE
agent on Windows?
A.WMI
B.RPC
C.SNMP
D.DCOM
Correct:B

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NO.5 What can you use to configure outages? (Select two.)
A.an outage server policy type
B.the node menu in the console for unplanned outagesthe node? menu in the console for unplanned
outages
C.the service's menu in the console for scheduled outages
D.the command line tool ovowserviceutil for unplanned outages
E.the ovpolicy tool to disable the policies for the nodes in outage
Correct:B D

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NO.6 You have 30 rules in one policy. How can you set the same message key in the outgoing
messages for all the rules that have already been created? (Select two.)
A.Change the message key field in each of the 30 rules separately.
B.Select all 30 rules. Choose 'Modify' and 'outgoing message' and overwrite the message key field.
C.Choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the message key field. This overwrites the current
message key of each rule.
D.If the message key was NOT already set, choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the
message key field. This will be applied for all
E.
Correct:A D

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NO.7 As an OM for Windows administrator, you are developing a policy that will create specialized
messages for each entry in a log file. You are NOT sure if you already covered all possible entries
(events). How can you as an administrator collect 'unmatched events' so that you are able to
analyze these and enhance your policy withoutdisturbing the operator's daily work? (Select two.)
A.Use the 'Log local events that don't match any rule' feature.
B.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the active Message browser' feature.
C.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the management server log file' feature.
D.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the acknowledged Message browser' feature.
Correct:A D

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NO.8 What happens if you have placed version 1.0 of a policy in Policy Management->Polices
Groups->MyWebServers and then create version 1.1 of the same policy below Policy
Management->Polices Grouped by Type?
A.Version 1.0 and version 1.1 of the policy are now in the policy group.
B.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is automatically updated to version 1.1.
C.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is NOT automatically updated to version 1.1.
D.Version 1.1 of the policy CANNOT be created because version 1.0 is already in a policy group.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which type of policy allows only one deployed policy per node?
A.Nodeinfo
B.SNMP Interceptor
C.Service Discovery
D.Open Message Interface
E.Flexible Management
Correct:E

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NO.10 Which statements are true regarding policy groups? (Select two.)
A.A policy group can contain other policy groups.
B.A policy group can contain policies of different policy types.
C.A policy group always contains the latest version of a policy.
D.A policy group can only contain policies of the same platform.
E.A policy group can contain different versions of the same policy.
Correct:A B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S19
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 You are planning a disaster recovery plan. Under optimal system configuration, what is the average
time taken for an array expansion?
A. 45 minutes per gigabyte
B. 30 minutes per gigabyte
C. 15 minutes per gigabyte
D. 5 minutes per gigabyte
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which types of migration can HP ProLiant Essentials Server Migration Pack support? (Select three.)
A. Virtual to Physical (V2P)
B. Virtual to Virtual (V2V)
C. Physical to Integrity (P2I)
D. Physical to Virtual (P2V)
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 Which utility does HP recommend to measure disk I/O performance in HP ProLiant servers?
A. Microsoft performance monitor
B. Array Diagnostic Utility
C. IO meter
D. SQL stress test
Answer: B

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NO.4 Why would you use the HP ProLiant Essentials Virtual Machine Management Pack if you already
manage your virtual machines with another product such as VMware VirtualCenter? (Select three.)
A. It uses fewer resources on the Central Management Server.
B. It ties into VirtualCenter and allows for actions based on predictive failures.
C. It ties directly into HP SIM to provide a single management view.
D. It manages VMs from MS, Citrix and VMware.E. It is available at no cost.
Answer: BCD

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of HP ProLiant host systems that you can connect to an MSA2000fc?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.6 A junior system administrator new to Linux asks you which tool to use to view processor utilization
information on a ProLiant server running SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10. Which tool do you
recommend?
A. monitor
B. topmon
C. vmstat
D. cpustat
Answer: C

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NO.7 ProLiant Essentials Server Migration Pack - Physical to ProLiant can migrate which file types? (Select
two.)
A. FAT32
B. EXT3
C. VMFS
D. NTFS
E. CIFS
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Your customer wants to implement a High-Performance Computing (HPC) environment consisting of
AMD Opteron processor-based ProLiant servers. The customer wants it to run a Linux OS and
take advantage of the HP InfiniBand cluster interconnect. Which cluster solution meets these
requirements?
A. HP ProLiant Cluster F200
B. HP ProLiant Cluster F500
C. HP Cluster Platform 3000
D. HP Cluster Platform 4000
Answer: D

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NO.9 A remote branch office has a DL580 G5 Server reporting a memory error on the Windows system
event log. The server has four 1GB memory DIMMs. What is the quickest way to tell which specific
memory module has failed?
A. Open up the server and replace the memory modules one by one.
B. Run the online HP Insight Diagnostic Utility.
C. Check the Systems Insight Display.
D. Run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU).
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which SMS utility enables you to remove an HP-specific SMS database and WMI elements installed by
the Setup Wizard?
A. hpSync
B. hpScan
C. hpSMSTool
D. SMSITHU
Answer: C

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NO.11 What should you consider when planning for cluster (active/active) failover?
A. capacity of shared storage
B. failover resource requirements on the surviving node
C. data transfer speed of shared storage
D. data integrity between both nodes
E. heartbeat communications speed between nodes
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Performance Management Pack (PMP) provides tools to assist in monitoring server performance. Which
tool is shown in the exhibit?
A. Offline Analysis
B. Online Analysis
C. Static Analysis Report
D. CSV File Generator
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer wants to purchase an MSA storage solution that meets the following requirements:
Provides end-to-end SAS host modular flexible platform in a high capacity 2U disk drive external direct
storage system
Uses both Small Form Factor (SFF) SAS and SATA disk drives
Supports cascading to a second MSA for future expansion
Hot plug compatibility
RAID 6 with ADG
Supports dual port SAS drives
Which solutions would you recommend? (Select two.)
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA60
E. MSA70
Answer: DE

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NO.14 Which hardware support services are offered by HP Care Packs? (Select two.)
A. Critical Service
B. 8-hour Call-to-Repair
C. 6-hour Same Business Day
D. Next Business Day
E. Return Service
Answer: DE

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NO.15 You are planning to use the HP Essentials Server Migration Pack to execute a Virtual-to-Virtual (V2V)
migration from one virtual machine host server to a new virtual machine host. HP SIM displays
the following status icons in the VM column for each machine:
Which action must be taken to allow the migration to proceed?
A. Install the VMM Agent on the source virtual machine host server.
B. Apply the VMM Pack license to the target virtual machine host server.
C. Install the VMM Agent on the target virtual machine host server.
D. Apply the VMM Pack license to the source virtual machine host server.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Your customer has installed a new server into their environment. When is the best time to perform the
initial performance baseline?
A. during peak daily operation
B. during idle periods of the system
C. during normal daily operation
D. during annual peak operation time
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which function can HP Insight Diagnostics Offline Edition perform that the Online Edition cannot?
A. scheduling of survey capturesB. printing of multiple copies of the diagnostic results
C. testing of all ProLiant Server subsystems
D. testing of database connectivity
Answer: C

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NO.18 When installing HP Insight Integration for OpenView NNM, which primary processes are installed?
(Select two.)
A. CPQWEB
B. CPQDIS
C. CPQTRAPD
D. CPQMAP
E. CPQRILOE
Answer: BD

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NO.19 When a second processor is added to a DL380 G5 Server running Linux, a kernel panic occurs. What
is the easiest way to correct the problem? (Select two.)
A. Reinstall the Linux operating system.
B. Replace the second processor.
C. Replace the DL380 G5 Server.
D. Swap the location of the two processors so the lower stepping processor is installed in processor
socket 1.
E. Upgrade the system ROM.
Answer: DE

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NO.20 What is the threshold Windows sets for pages/sec to represent a memory bottleneck situation?
A. 2
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
E. 200
Answer: B

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