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Code d'Examen: OG0-081
Nom d'Examen: The Open Group (TOGAF 8 Certification for Practitioners)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 6.2.2: In TOGAF's Architecture Governance organizational structure, which group is chiefly
responsible for deployment and operations?
A. domain architects
B. IT service management
C. Chief Information Officer/Chief Technology Officer
D. program management office
E. technical support
Answer: B

The Open Group examen   certification OG0-081   certification OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.2 1.H.1: As the ADM cycle is completed for a given architecture program, the architecture staff is
responsible for ____.
A. Project planning
B. Final appraisal of the implemented architecture
C. Ongoing monitoring of business and technology changes related to the architecture work
D. Implementation Governance
E. Internal marketing of the solution
Answer: C

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.3 2.18: A Technical Architecture Report should contain all of these items except ___.
A. requirements traceability analysis
B. project impact analysis
C. technology architecture models
D. technical specification for each building block
E. gap analysis report
Answer: B

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NO.4 1.CA.6: Which of the following would be a potential downstream use of the qualitative criteria for the
application architecture
A. managing code quality
B. generating service level agreements
C. regression testing
D. gap analysis
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 2.5: Who usually initiates a Request for Architecture Work?
A. the sponsoring organization
B. the architecture organization
C. the CIO/CTO
D. the architecture governance board
E. senior management
Answer: A

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NO.6 1.A.2: Typically, business goals and drivers have already been established and need only be validated.
If this is not true, what process should be followed?
A. Resequence the project to occur later in the overall program
B. The team should work with the project sponsor to create a set of goals and objectives and to validate
those goals and objectives with top management
C. The project team should create a set of placeholder goals and objectives
D. Place the project on hold until a suitable set of business goals and objectives can be defined by top
management
E. Benchmark with a similar, noncompeting organization, and adopt their best practices for business
goals and objectives
Answer: B

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NO.7 1.D.2: The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____.
A. is intended as an example and should be tailored to the organization's needs
B. must be used "as is" for developing comprehensive architecture models
C. contains several industry specific frameworks
D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum
E. contains only solution building blocks
Answer: A

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.8 3.1.3: In the high level Technical Reference Model ____.
A. all of these
B. the application directly communicates to the outside environment
C. the application communicates with the application platform through the communications infrastructure
interface
D. it is possible to analyze performance crtieria
E. the communication infrastructure is very diverse
Answer: E

The Open Group examen   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.9 3.1.1: Which of the following would be a good example of an infrastructure application?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. System and Network Management system
C. e-Mail
D. Office (desktop) software
E. All of these
Answer: E

The Open Group examen   OG0-081   certification OG0-081   OG0-081 examen   OG0-081 examen

NO.10 1.G.1: What are the key inputs to Phase G - Implementation Governance?
A. reusable solution building blocks
B. statement of architecture work
C. request for architecture work
D. all of these items
E. impact analysis
Answer: D

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NO.11 5.2: The U.S. Department of Defense C4ISR Architecture framework (now DODAF) provides an
integrated architecture model with three views. Which of these sets of views is provided?
A. logical, physical, financial
B. operational, technical, systems
C. logical, physical, operational
D. strategic, tactical, operational
E. strategic, systems, operations
Answer: B

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NO.12 1.R.1: When can new requirements be added to the requirement management repository?
A. during each phase of the ADM
B. at the Architecture Vision phase
C. anytime during Phases A through D
D. only upon completion of a business scenario
E. when submitting the Request for Architecture Work
Answer: A

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NO.13 1.P.3: Which of the following statements about architecture principles is most true?
A. Architecture principles must be tailored to the requirements of a given architecture project
B. Architecture principles are intended to be enduring and seldom amended
C. Architecture principles cannot transcend the organization's business strategies and objectives
D. Executive Management can define principles as a means of enforcing compliance to its policies and
rules
E. Due to their sensitive nature, architecture principles should be kept confidential
Answer: B

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.14 2.23: The final version of an Impact Analysis should contain all of the following except _____.
A. prioritized projects
B. enhanced budget forecasts
C. time ordered sequencing
D. Implementation recommendations
E. measures of effectiveness
Answer: B

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NO.15 4.1.4: The Architecture Continuum _____ the Solutions Continuum.
A. drives
B. is driven by
C. is designed to satisfy
D. is based on
E. guides and supports the evolution of
Answer: E

The Open Group   OG0-081 examen   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.16 1.A.5: During the Architecture Vision phase, what would be a typical source of enterprise wide
constraints?
A. The results of a detailed gap analysis
B. The project plan for the given architecture activity
C. External benchmarks
D. The organization's business and architecture principles
E. The architecture contract
Answer: D

The Open Group examen   certification OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081 examen   certification OG0-081

NO.17 1.E.2: During Phase E - Opportunties and Solutions, a gap analysis can be used to compare the ____
between the as-is and the to-be architecture.
A. requirements
B. Solution Building Blocks
C. Architecture Building Blocks
D. business functions
E. standards
Answer: D

The Open Group examen   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.18 6.1.1: Which of the following is not true about the nature of governance?
A. All of these are characterisitics of governance.
B. Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization's strategic objectives
C. Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties
D. All decisions taken, processes used and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair
advantage to any one particular party.
E. All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes and authority structures
established by the organisation.
Answer: A

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081 examen

NO.19 1.F.1: What is the objective of Phase F?
A. To establish the IT Governance framework that will be used to direct deployment.
B. To sort the implementation projects into priority order for implementation and migration.
C. To implement change management processes that will be used to manage the implementation
projects.
D. To validate the architecture vision.
E. All of these tasks
Answer: B

The Open Group examen   OG0-081   certification OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.20 1.CA.1: All of the following elements are required in the Application Architecture Baseline Document
except ____.
A. architecture models of the candidate system(s)
B. business and organization units supported
C. precedent and successor applications
D. owner(s) or business unit(s) responsible for requirements
E. hardware and software platforms used
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-311
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

certification Symantec   250-311   250-311   250-311   250-311

NO.2 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.3 Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for
theirdesktops and servers missed several rootkitswithin their environment. These rootkits have
compromised several company computers.
Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits?
A. Host Integrity
B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Application and Device Control
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-311   250-311   250-311

NO.5 Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminatethe HelpDesk callsthey receivedue to end users
modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files.
Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from
altering configuration files?
A. TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan
B. Device Control
C. Application Control
D. Host Integrity
Answer: C

Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311 examen   250-311

NO.6 Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager console?
A. Policies
B. Home
C. Admin
D. Clients
Answer: A

Symantec   250-311   250-311

NO.7 Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam
D. worm
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-311   250-311 examen

NO.8 The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs
three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the
ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.
How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift?
(Choose two.)
A. create one group for all computers in the facility
B. create one group for all users in the facility
C. create one group for all computers on each shift
D. create one group for all users on each shift
E. switch the clients to computer mode
F. switch the clients to user mode
Answer: DF

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NO.9 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
B. MTA
C. sensor
D. firewall
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about Symantec Endpoint Protection TruScan Proactive Threat Scan?
(Choose two.)
A. It inspects encrypted network traffic.
B. It evaluates process behavior.
C. It uses malicious code detection signatures.
D. It blocks attackers' IP addresses.
E.It detects unknown threats.
Answer: BE

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NO.12 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THEEXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec Corporation
the Exam materials, questions or Answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this
Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written correspondence or
agreements between the parties with respect thereto.
If you ACCEPT the termsand conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If
you DO NOT ACCEPT this Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed
with this exam.
Answer.pending

NO.13 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.14 Where can you edit a non-shared policy?
A. Clients
B. Monitors
C. Home
D. Admin
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-311   250-311   certification 250-311   certification 250-311   250-311

NO.15 What is one reason for disabling learned applications?
A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords.
B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode.
C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.
D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   250-311

NO.16 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 In the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console, where do you modifyreplication?
A. Admim > Servers > Server Properties > Directory Servers
B. Admin > Servers > Local Site > Replication Partner
C. Policies > Management Server Lists > Replication
D. Admin > Servers > Database > Tasks
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec
Endpoint Protection.
Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification 250-311   250-311   250-311

NO.19 A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB
access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which two things are required to achievethis? (Choose two.)
A. multiple sites
B. multiple locations
C. firewall policy
D. device control policy
E. host integrity policy
Answer: BD

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NO.20 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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250-250 dernières questions d'examen certification Symantec et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 250-250
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
Questions et réponses: 199 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.2 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.3 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.4 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.5 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.6 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.7 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.8 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.9 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.10 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.11 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.12 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.13 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.14 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.15 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.16 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.17 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.18 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.19 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

NO.20 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

Symantec   250-250 examen   250-250 examen

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Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Endpoint Specialist - Media Encryption(CPEPS-ME))
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the following image of a log event. Assume this device is frequently used, but you
cannot control its use to the extent it that id required. What is the most reliable solution to this
dilemma?
A. Add this device to Device Manager
B. Create e-mail alerts anytime this device is accessed
C. Create a media audit rule
D. require that the device be password encrypted
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-708.70   156-708.70   156-708.70

NO.2 There has been a security breach of your companys network and you must block clients
form downloading all files with an .inst extension. What is the correct approach to resolve this
issue?
A. Create the file extension in PSG, save the profile, and update all groups.
B. Load the default profile to groups in the organization until steps are taken to remove the
threat.
C. PSG does not support executing files having other than 3 character extensions and will
therefore block the file.
D. Selects the file extension in PSG, and reloads the profile appropriately.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-708.70   156-708.70 examen   certification 156-708.70

NO.3 Can Endpoint Security Media Encryption import Novell user group?
A. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only work with Active Directory
B. Yes
C. Yes, if the Novell Server is using RADIUS with LDAP
D. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only uses RADIUS
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-708.70   156-708.70

NO.4 Under what circumstances this command line procedure would be used? 1. osql.exe �CE 2.
Use disknet 3. update globle configuration set 4. go
A. To connect a local MSDE database installed on a machine using a Microsoft Trusted application
B. To unlock and access the Endpoint Security Media Encryption Server service.
C. To address a blue screen issue when using Endpoint Security media Encryption and McAfee
8.5i on a Windows Vista Enterprise machine
D. To connect to a remote SQL instance using trusted authentication.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-708.70   156-708.70   certification 156-708.70   156-708.70

NO.5 Fill in the blank if no Anti-Virus scanner or Pointsec DataScan is detected on the client
machine,then automatic authorization.
A. will be possible under certain restrictions.
B. will not be possible and access will not be granted.
C. is intiated with administrative approval Build Your Dreams PassGuide 156-708.70
D. will permit the user to authorization the device anyway.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-708.70 examen   156-708.70

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CheckPoint 156-215-70 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 156-215-70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R70)
Questions et réponses: 543 Q&As

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NO.1 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215-70   156-215-70 examen   certification 156-215-70   certification 156-215-70

NO.2 A digital signature:
A.Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B.Automatically exchanges shared keys
C.Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message
D.Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-215-70   156-215-70

NO.3 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215-70   certification 156-215-70   156-215-70 examen

NO.4 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215-70   156-215-70 examen

NO.5 You are installing a Security Management Server Your security plan calls for three administrators for this
particular server.How many can you create during installation'?
A.Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B.Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C.One
D.As many as you want
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-215-70   156-215-70   156-215-70   156-215-70   certification 156-215-70

NO.6 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

CheckPoint examen   156-215-70   156-215-70   156-215-70 examen

NO.7 Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided
A.by authentication.
B.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
C.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D.via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-215-70   156-215-70   156-215-70 examen   156-215-70 examen   156-215-70

NO.8 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-215-70   certification 156-215-70   156-215-70

NO.9 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215-70   156-215-70

NO.10 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard
connections to the stand-alone installation of R70.After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are
able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes.Which of the following change is the most
likely cause of the block?
A.A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R70 Gateway.
B.The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C.The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D.The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN
Gateway.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215-70   156-215-70 examen

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Code d'Examen: 156-515-65
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before
allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic
load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-515-65 examen   156-515-65 examen   certification 156-515-65

NO.2 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied.
Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-515-65 examen   156-515-65

NO.3 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what
information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

certification CheckPoint   156-515-65   156-515-65   156-515-65 examen

NO.4 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer
becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored
in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-515-65   156-515-65 examen   156-515-65 examen

NO.5 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   156-515-65   156-515-65   certification 156-515-65

NO.6 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr.
Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-515-65   156-515-65   156-515-65   156-515-65 examen

NO.7 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a
problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check
Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-515-65   156-515-65   156-515-65   certification 156-515-65

NO.8 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to
view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-515-65 examen   156-515-65   156-515-65   156-515-65   156-515-65

NO.9 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-515-65 examen   156-515-65   certification 156-515-65   156-515-65 examen

NO.10 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a
record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security
Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 270-131
Nom d'Examen: CA (Certified Unicenter Specialist Administrator )
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. CPUTNG
C. POSTCPU
D. PRECPU
Answer: ACD

CA   certification 270-131   270-131 examen

NO.2 What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D

CA   270-131   certification 270-131   270-131   270-131

NO.3 What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: ACF

certification CA   270-131   270-131 examen   certification 270-131   270-131 examen   270-131

NO.4 The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application
resources. They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.5 Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through
which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B

CA   certification 270-131   270-131 examen   270-131

NO.6 What command directs Event Management to refresh the active Message Record
and Message Action lists immediately with the definitions stored in the Event
Management database?
A. cawto
B. clean_sadmin
C. opreload
D. resetdsm
Answer: C

certification CA   270-131 examen   270-131   270-131   270-131   270-131

NO.7 When creating a new Calendar within the Unicenter Explorer, what is the default
Time increment?
A. 5 Minutes
B. 15 Minutes
C. 10 Minutes
D. 12 Minutes
Answer: B

CA   270-131 examen   270-131 examen

NO.8 What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the
Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B

CA   270-131 examen   270-131   certification 270-131

NO.9 Which Left Pane option is used to create a new Calendar inside the Unicenter
Explorer?
A. Topology
B. Tools
C. Properties
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: D

CA   270-131   270-131

NO.10 Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the
Workload Agent
Answer: B

CA examen   270-131   270-131

NO.11 The opreload process reads the policy stored in the Event Management database
and creates two copies of the Decision Support Binary. One is placed in memory and
the other is stored on the disk. What is the default name of the DSB copy stored on
the disk?
A. caioprdb
B. caopr.dsb
C. caoprdmn process
D. caoprlog process
Answer: B

CA   270-131   270-131   270-131   270-131

NO.12 To access a remote enterprise manager through the Unicenter explorer the user
must specify what type of Userid?
A. The MS SQL server system administrator userid, 'sa'
B. The COR userid and password
C. An operating system userid that allows login to the remote system.
D. The caunint userid.
Answer: C

CA   certification 270-131   certification 270-131

NO.13 What are the Message Records and Action policies referred to after they are loaded
into physical memory?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Decision Support Binary
C. Distributed Services Bus
D. Event Console
Answer: B

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NO.14 What component is selected to install the Report Builder and Report
Administrator?
A. Unicenter Explorer
B. Performance Management
C. Unicenter Reports
D. Software Development Kit
Answer: C

certification CA   270-131   270-131   270-131 examen

NO.15 SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D

certification CA   270-131   270-131   270-131

NO.16 What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B

CA   270-131   270-131   270-131

NO.17 What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?
A. Standard
B. Default
C. MAIN
D. BASE
Answer: D

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NO.18 CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B

CA   certification 270-131   270-131 examen   270-131 examen   270-131

NO.19 When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what
network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D

CA   270-131   270-131   270-131 examen

NO.20 All message records and message actions are stored in the Event Management
database. When you add, modify, or delete message records and message actions,
you are not changing active policy; you are simply updating the database. What is
the default logical name for this database?
A. caioprdb
B. caioprlog
C. caoprdmn process
D. opreload
Answer: A

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