2013年10月1日星期二

000-839 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 000-839
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Unified Process v7.0)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Project Plan?
A.to assess the feasibility of the project
B.to establish project staffing
C.to describe the phases and major milestones of the project
D.to provide a sound rationale for project funding
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which two factors determine the duration of an iteration? (Choose two.)
A.the size of the project
B.the priority set by the customer on particular features
C.the requirement for a minimum of six iterations in a project
D.the level of automation used to manage code, distribute information and perform testing
Correct:A D

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about an Executable Architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It is a disposable prototype of the application.
B.It is a simulation of the executing system.
C.It is a validation (testable) of the architecture.
D.It is the baseline for the rest of development.
Correct:C D

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NO.4 What relationship(s) can a work product have to a task?
A.input only
B.output only
C.input and output
D.optional input, mandatory input, and output
Correct:D

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NO.5 What are three characteristics of a task? (Choose three.)
A.is work a role performs
B.occurs once in an iteration
C.has granularity of a few hours to a few days
D.usually affects only one or a small number of work products
Correct:A C D

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NO.6 What is a typical breakdown of total project effort across the phases?
A.Inception 20% Elaboration 50% Construction 20% Transition 10%
B.Inception 5%, Elaboration 20%, Construction 45%, Transition 30%
C.Inception 10% Elaboration 10% Construction 70% Transition 10%
D.Inception 5% Elaboration 20% Construction 65% Transition 10%
Correct:D

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NO.7 In planning for iterative development, the Project Plan is referred to as a _____.
A.roadmap
B.fine-grained plan
C.detailed plan
D.risk management tool
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which three work products belong in the Project Management discipline? (Choose three.)
A.Risk Management Plan
B.Business Case
C.Test Evaluation Summary Report
D.Project Plan
Correct:A B D

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NO.9 Why does the risk-time profile decline more rapidly for iterative development than waterfall
development? (Choose two.)
A.Iterative development exposes design flaws and enables resolution earlier in the lifecycle.
B.With iterative development, customer satisfaction is maintained by early, incremental deliveries of
capability.
C.In iterative development, the software architecture can be revised in any iteration to support new
features and overcome performance problems.
D.Iterative development allows key, non-functional requirements (i.e. performance, fault tolerance and
maintainability) to be addressed early in development.
Correct:A D

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about iterations? (Choose two.)
A.Working software is always delivered to the customer.
B.An iterations always has a plan and evaluation criteria.
C.An iteration is a mini project with a plan, deliverables and assessment.
D.There are always multiple iterations in each phase.
Correct:B C

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NO.11 In the Construction phase, what are the two areas of focus of the Iteration Plan? (Choose two.)
A.development efficiency
B.project scoping
C.architectural risks
D.product quality
Correct:A D

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NO.12 The Iteration Plan belongs to _____.
A.the Project Management domain and the Specification work product kind
B.the Assessment domain and the Project Management work product kind
C.the Planning domain and the Project Management work product kind
D.the Project Management domain and the Plan work product kind
Correct:D

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NO.13 Which two concepts guide iterative development? (Choose two.)
A.early completion of simple features, to show progress to the customer
B.informal plans, allowing features to be moved to future iterations
C.early baselining of architecture, allowing stability in planning, content and organization
D.scope validation by stakeholders, to account for their needs
Correct:C D

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NO.14 What are two functions of a Status Assessment? (Choose two.)
A.manages expectations
B.provides a mechanism for resolving management issues
C.rates the overall project quality
D.resolves risk items
Correct:A B

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NO.15 Which is a fine-grained plan?
A.Software Development Plan
B.Business Case
C.Iteration Plan
D.Risk Management Plan
Correct:C

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NO.16 In RUP, what does the Software Development Plan contain?
A.Iteration Plan
B.Requirements Management Plan, Master Validation Plan, Quality Test Plan, and Risk Management
Plan
C.Problem Resolution Plan, Product Acceptance Plan, Measurement Plan, Risk Management Plan, and
Quality Assurance Plan
D.Requirements Management Plan, Product Metrics Plan, and Software Test Assurance Plan
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which is part of the evaluation criteria for successful completion of the Elaboration phase?
A.A final set of requirements is agreed upon.
B.All detailed design documents are reviewed.
C.The architecture is stable.
D.Less than 50% of project budget is expended.
Correct:C

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NO.18 What are three types of work products? (Choose three.)
A.artifact
B.deliverable
C.milestone
D.outcome
Correct:A B D

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NO.19 Which two model elements can be linked to descriptors? (Choose two.)
A.Phase
B.Task
C.Activity
D.Role
Correct:B D

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NO.20 How does an iterative approach help with resource and cost control?
A.It allows the Project Manager to control allocation of resources by phase. Artifacts evolve as required by
each phase and there is increased precision of cost estimates from phase to phase.
B.It allows the Project Manager to make budgetary requests with each iteration. These requests are
based on the expansion of project scope as requested by the customer.
C.It allows iterations to be planned in advance and in detail for all phases. It helps establish costs and a
profile of resource usage can be generated in advance for the entire project.
D.It allows iterations to be de-scoped as required, at the direction of the Project Manager. It allows better
management of costs as features can be moved to later iterations when resources are available.
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: 000-806
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Ap Svr Ntwk Deploy V6.1 Adv Admn)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines
to the cluster. Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available resources on
the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application developers
must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to determine
whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned destinations; a
review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted to determine if this can be
tolerated
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere
Application Server ND V6.1 clusters?
A. A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of single
machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there will be sufficient
capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of machine
processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is sufficient capacity available
for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the failed
cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When
the administrator checked the status of the servers in the cluster, they noticed the cluster showing a state
of partially started. What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for
an application. The application team wants to make sure it does not loose any cache data that is
generated. What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A. Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different
physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of
the five cluster members. What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that
still ensures proper fail over?
A. A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by the
messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-136
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Application Developer v7)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 A developer has deleted a file from a Java package in a workspace and would like to recover it.
What must the developer do after selecting the Java package?
A. use the context pop-up menu option "Restore from Local History"
B. use the context pop-up menu option "Recover from File System"
C. click File > Deleted files and select the file
D. click File > Undo
Answer: A

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NO.2 A developer has made multiple changes to a Java file. How can the developer switch back to an earlier
version of the file?
A. context pop-up menu > Compare with > Local history
B. context pop-up menu > Edit > Reset
C. context pop-up menu > Replace With > Local history
D. File > Replace with Previous
Answer: C

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NO.3 What can a developer manage using Rational Application Developer?
A. a single workspace per workbench
B. multiple workspaces per workbench by switching between workspaces
C. multiple workspaces per workbench by organizing them as views
D. multiple workspaces per workbench with additional licenses
Answer: B

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NO.4 When creating a session bean, the default selection for the session bean is to create a remote client
view instead of a local client view. This is because:
A. Even though a local client view is available, it is a best practice to never use a local client view in a
session bean.
B. Session beans are normally used to implement facades, and as such, require remote interfaces as
opposed to local interfaces.
C. A remote client view is easier to use.
D. Local client view for session beans has been deprecated.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which application development framework is used to develop highly available, reliable, scalable, and
secure Web and client-server applications in Java?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
B. Standard Widget Toolkit (SWT)
C. Java Enterprise Edition (JavaEE)
D. Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which view best displays the list of all callers and callees of a selected method?
A. Call Hierarchy
B. Hierarchy
C. Outline
D. Package Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.7 How many perspectives can a developer interact with at a time in each workbench window?
A. as many as needed if the perspectives are organized as Views
B. as many as needed by selecting File > Switch Perspective
C. only one
D. one per View
Answer: C

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NO.8 A developer has closed a view in the Java perspective in the workbench.
What can the developer select to recover the original Java perspective layout?
A. Window > Delete Perspective
B. Workbench > Use Defaults
C. Window > Reset Perspective
D. File > Recover Defaults
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true about the Software Analysis feature?
A. It provides a runtime environment to test web resources.
B. It is used to debug a wide range of applications.
C. It assists in gathering data and metrics on applications that are running.
D. It can perform automated code reviews without executing applications.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are three methods of importing a file from the file system to a Java package in the workbench?
(Choose three.)
A. drag and drop the file from the file system to the package in the workbench
B. use the Import wizard from the File menu in the workbench
C. use the context pop-up menu on the package in the workbench and select Import
D. select Search > File in the workbench and then use the Import tab
E. use the context pop-up menu on the file in the file system and select Import to Workbench
Answer: ABC

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Code d'Examen: 000-017
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Foundations of Tivoli process automation engine V7.1)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 When creating a new escalation, what is the most likely reason that the conditional SQL Expression
Builder does not list attributes to use?
A.An object has not been linked in the Applies To field.
B.The escalation has not been linked to an existing attribute.
C.The Create Condition Entry Disabled check box is selected.
D.The escalation has not been linked to an existing application.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which method is used to validate the escalation being created?
A.Choose the Select action for Validate.
B.There is no validation of the escalation.
C.Save the escalation. Validation is automatic.
D.Click the Action button, which resembles a green check mark.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of domain cannot have a Lookup created for it?
A.Table
B.Numeric
C.Synonym
D.Numeric Range
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Conditional Expression Manager?
A.It creates and stores libraries of SQL statements.
B.It dynamically assigns a user to a Security Group based on a condition.
C.It controls workflow paths automatically when certain users are involved.
D.It creates conditions for group membership to automatically associate users into groups.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two types of condition can be created using the Conditional Expression Manager? (Choose
two.)
A.class
B.unique
C.universal
D.expression
E.conditional
Answer: AD

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NO.6 What does the Schedule field refer to when creating an escalation?
A.the schedule by which the escalation will poll for conditions
B.the scheduled working hours of the escalation response team
C.the scheduled days of the week for which the escalation path is valid
D.a scheduled timer that is set when the condition checked by the escalation change, after which the
escalation fires
Answer: A

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NO.7 When defining Security Groups which parameters can be specified?
A. Users, Sites, Applications and Storerooms
B. Storerooms, Group, Person and Applications
C. Users, Security, Data Restrictions and Access Rights
D. Permissions, Applications, Locations and Departments
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which factor would normally be considered when developing a primary location hierarchy?
A.the financial relationship between locations
B.the functional relationship between locations
C.the geophysical relationship between locations
D.the organizational relationship between locations
Answer: C

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NO.9 A pharmaceutical company has made a tremendous number of configurations in their development
environment in order to meet their business requirements and the government regulations. The company
is ready to move 25% of these configurations into the test environment.
How should this be accomplished?
A.Export the XML and then import it again as appropriate into the test environment.
B.All of the configurations must be brought over. It is impossible to define only 25% of the configurations.
C.A package of the appropriate configurations should be defined and created. It should be distributed and
then deployed into the test environment.
D.Create a package of the appropriate configurations. Then use the Integration Framework to export
those configurations. Finally, use the Integration Framework to import the configurations into the Test
environment again.
Answer: C

IBM   000-017   000-017   000-017

NO.10 A business requires the blocking of status changes when a work order record is in workflow, unlocking
at a certain point to perform a status change to APPR, and then relocking when the status change occurs.
Leveraging the workflow tool, what are the necessary data elements and steps to meet this requirement?
A.On the workflow connector line where the status block is to begin use the NOSTATUS action. To unlock
the status change block, prior to the next status change, on a connector line use the OKSTATUS action.
B.In the Actions application, for the work order object, create the following Change Status type actions:
OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector line where the status block is to begin
use the NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior to the next status change, on a
connector line use the OKSTATUS and WOAPPR actions.
C.In the Actions application, create an Action Group for the work order object with the following members
in the following order: OKSTATUS, Work Order Approval action, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector
line where the status block is to begin use a NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior
to the next status change, on a connector line use the Action Group.
D.In the Actions application, for the work order object, create the following Change Status type actions:
OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. Create an Action Group for the work order object with the following
members in the following order: OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector line
where the status block is to begin use a NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior to the
next status change, on a connector line use the Action Group.
Answer: C

IBM   000-017   000-017 examen   000-017 examen

NO.11 A client has a workflow requirement on new asset records. Part of this requirement is that the
Contracts representatives from the Lease and Warranty groups review and validate contracts the asset
may or may not be under. The asset record cannot move to the next part of the workflow process until all
assignments are completed.
Which data elements and actions can be used to configure this part of the workflow process?
A.Use an Interaction node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate
that the Perform Acceptance Action is for when all assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an action that Leasing and Warranty Contracts
have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line coming
from this Task node to indicate an action that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been reviewed and
this asset is not under a contract.
B.Use a Task node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate that the
Perform Acceptance Action is for when all assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive connection
line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and Warranty
Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line
coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been
reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
C.Use an Interaction node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate
that the Perform Acceptance Action is for when any assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and
Warranty Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts
have been reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
D.Use a Task node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate that the
Perform Acceptance Action is for when any assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive connection
line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and Warranty
Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line
coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been
reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-017   000-017 examen   000-017

NO.12 The property mxe.rmi.port can be found in maximo.properties and by the System Properties
application.
If mxe.rmi.port is set to 0 in the properties file, and is set to 1090 from the System Properties application,
which statement is true about this property?
A.This property value cannot be set to 0 in the properties file. Therefore, the value must be 1090.
B.The Tivoli process automation engine terminates with an error on startup because the two settings are
not consistent.
C.The value in the Tivoli process automation engine properties overrides the value found in the properties
file. So the property value would be 1090.
D.The value in the properties file overrides the value found when viewing Tivoli process automation
engine properties, so the property value would be 0.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-017   000-017   000-017   000-017

NO.13 Which two data elements are required to configure a Conditional user interface Control? (Choose two.)
A.Domain
B.Person Group
C.Object Structure
D.Signature Option
E.Conditional Expression
Answer: DE

IBM   000-017   000-017

NO.14 When the agent saves the service request ticket, the system launches into a Service Request
Workflow process and evaluates the data on the record. If the agent has not entered asset, location, or
configuration item data, the system displays a dialog box with the following options:
Close ticket - informational call
Close ticket - unauthorized caller
Close ticket - misdirected call
Take no action
If an asset, location, or configuration item is specified on the record, the system displays a dialog box with
the following options:
Take Ownership of ticket
Assign Ownership of ticket
Create Work Order
Take no action on this ticket
Which three Nodes are used in this part of the workflow process? (Choose three.)
A.Wait
B.Input
C.Task
D.Condition
E.Interaction
F.Manual Input
Answer: DEF

IBM   certification 000-017   000-017   000-017   000-017

NO.15 Which type of domain has an internal value?
A.Table
B.Numeric
C.Synonym
D.Crossover
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-017   000-017   000-017   certification 000-017

NO.16 Which property must be specified in maximo.properties?
A.mxe.db.user
B.mxe.rmi.port
C.mxe.http.port
D.mxe.UserLicenseKey
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-017 examen   000-017   certification 000-017

NO.17 Which three workflow application actions (APPACTION) can only be used in conjunction with an
Escalation and the WFASSIGNMENT object? (Choose three.)
A.WFAUTO
B.WFCOND
C.WFREJECT
D.WFINITIATE
E.WFACCEPT
F.WFESCALATE
Answer: CEF

IBM examen   000-017   000-017   000-017

NO.18 A customer wants to ensure that any data sent to the Tivoli process automation engine's Integration
Framework for retrieval of financial data into the Tivoli process automation engine can survive restarts
and failures.
Which statement is true?
A.A JMS messaging engine must be configured with a persistent data store.
B.The customer must have the persist data option set for the Integration Framework adapter.
C.It can be configured by setting a property inside the Tivoli process automation engine after installation.
D.The messages are stored local to the adapter and will survive failures without any additional
configuration.
Answer: A

IBM   000-017   000-017   000-017

NO.19 Which configuration option should be set when creating an escalation?
A.any related notifications to the escalation
B.the severity of the event that will be created
C.pager numbers in a comma-separated list in the escalation
D.the Peregrine or Remedy queue in which the escalation is placed
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-017   000-017   000-017

NO.20 Which function is performed when enabling Application Server security during the installation?
A.configuring Database Server to use Application Server security
B.configuring the Tivoli process automation engine application so that it handles authorizations to use the
application
C.modifying the J2EE application so that authentication will be handled by an external source such as
IBM Tivoli Directory Server or Microsoft Active Directory
D.modifying the Tivoli process automation engine application so that authentication is handled through
the application rather than an external source such as IBM Tivoli Directory Server or Microsoft Active
Directory
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-017 examen   certification 000-017

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Code d'Examen: 000-M27
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Build Forge Technical Sales Mastery Date)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

000-M27 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-M27.html

NO.1 Which stage of the typical application development process is NOT automated in Build Forge?
A.Unit Testing
B.Requirements
C.Release
D.PackagingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-M27   certification 000-M27   000-M27   000-M27   000-M27

NO.2 What are the main business values that Build Forge brings to an organization?
A.secure, centralized role based console, developer self-service, accelerated build times
B.reduced cost of delivery, increased product quality, decreased time to market, and management
decision and support
C.Intelligent Bill of Materials, parallel processing through threading, and dynamic server management
D.dependency management, makefile acceleration, and reduced delivery costWArialTimes New
RomanZX
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-M27   000-M27   000-M27 examen   000-M27   000-M27

NO.3 Which component of the Build Forge functional architecture provides a pre-flight build capability that
allows you to selectively choose local file changes and preview the build results before committing the file
changes to source code control?
A.IDE plug-in
B.MMC plug-in
C.Staging Tool
D.Build Forge AgentWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

IBM   000-M27   certification 000-M27   certification 000-M27   000-M27

NO.4 How does Build Forge improve a customers software build-and-release process?
A.by facilitating centralized collaboration
B.by providing up-to-date compilers and debuggers
C.by dynamically producing product documentation
D.by facilitating scripted unit testingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-M27   000-M27 examen   000-M27 examen   certification 000-M27

NO.5 A software development company has a major customer that requires a previous release of their
software to be modified to run on Windows Vista.
Which software build-and-release best practice addresses this issue?
A.building early and often
B.build reproducibility
C.automation and integration
D.link to deployment environmentsWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-M27   000-M27

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen 000-671 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-671
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Sales V1)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of ASMPs and ASM asapters that can be configured
into one ASM Interconnect Network?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-671   000-671 examen   000-671   certification 000-671

NO.2 Which two 2 of the following IBM xSeries servers include a standard ISMP, and can
upgrade system management capabilities by installing a Remote Supervisor
Adapter?
A. xSeries 225
B. xSeries 235
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 345
Answer: B,D

IBM   000-671   000-671   000-671   000-671

NO.3 Web-based management, DNS/DHCP support and e-mail alerts are functions of the
IBM__________
A. Remote Supervisor adapter
B. Netfinity Advanced System Management PCI adapter
C. xSeries 225 interated System Management function
D. xSeries 345 integrated System Management processor.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-671   000-671   000-671   000-671 examen   000-671

NO.4 The technology built into most IBM xSeries servers that can drastically reduce
service time by visually guiding the technician to a faulty component is called
A. IBM Director
B. Serverguide
C. Light-path diagnostics.
D. Predictive failure analysis.
Answer: C

IBM   000-671   certification 000-671   certification 000-671   000-671

NO.5 Capacity Manager ServeRaid Manager and cluster Systems Management are
comprehensive tools provided by which IBM Director feature?
A. Update Connector
B. Resource Monitoring
C. Electronic Service Agent
D. Director Extensions
Answer: D

IBM   000-671   000-671   000-671   000-671 examen

NO.6 Which of the following is a RAID controller device that contains Fiber Channel
Interfaces to connect the host systems and disk drive enclosures?
A. EXP300
B. SAN FC Switch
C. FAST Storage Server
D. RXE-100 Remote Expansion Enclosure
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-671   000-671 examen   000-671

NO.7 How many of the IBM xSeries 345 server PCI expansion slots are Active PCI slots?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-671   certification 000-671   certification 000-671

NO.8 Which items from the following list are X-architecture Guiding Principles?
1- To drive and enhance industry standards
2- To make servers easier to service
3- To make servers easier to deploy and use
4- To make IBM servers easier to sell
5- To strive toward uninterrupted computing for intel processor-based servers
6- To lead the industry in driving down the cost of enterprise computing
A. 2,3,4,only
B. 1,3,5,6 only
C. 1,2,4,5, only
D. 2,5,6, only
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-671   000-671

NO.9 Which two of the following allow RAID-5E to provide better protection than the
standard RAID-5?
A. Hot-space defined as part of the array
B. More than one logical drive in the array
C. Stripes data and parity across all of the drives in the array
D. Two drives in the array could fail, but not at the same time.
Answer: A,D

IBM   000-671   000-671 examen

NO.10 The IBM Director function that allows administrators to use a command line
session to execute commands on the managed system is __________
A. File transfer
B. Process management
C. Remote session
D. Remote control
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-671   000-671   000-671   000-671

NO.11 Which IBM xSeries server is an affordable entry-level uniprocessor server with
rack-mount support provided by an optional rack conversion ket?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 335
D. xSeries 345
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-671   000-671   certification 000-671   certification 000-671

NO.12 An ISP requires an ultra-dense 2-way high performance rack server to provide as
much capacity as possible in a crowded data center. The budget is tight so total cost
of ownership is a consideration. The customer needs a solution that is easy to install
and configure, and which makes adding or replacing servers simple. Which one of
the following IBM xSeries servers would best meet these requirements?
A. xSeries 305
B. xSeries 335
C. xSeries 345
D. xSeries 360
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-671   000-671

NO.13 What LAN hardware device is used to connect two network or systems?. This device
is protocol-independent but hardware-specific.
A. Bridge
B. Ateway
C. Repeater
D. Router
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-671 examen   000-671   000-671

NO.14 Which two of the following IBM xSeries servers listed below are equipped with an
intel Pentium 4 processor?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 335
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-671   certification 000-671   000-671   000-671

NO.15 A company wants to track applications installed on their network systems using a
dictionary file with many predefined software product files. They also want to
collect hardware and software data when a managed system is first discovered and
at reular intervals after that. Which of the following IBM Director features would
be used to perform this function?
A. Resource Monitoring
B. Inventory Management
C. Software DISTRIBUTION
D. DMI Browser
Answer: B

IBM   000-671   000-671   000-671   000-671

NO.16 Which of the following system management functions is supported only by the
Remote Supervisor Adapter
A. e-mail alerts
B. Generate SNMP traps
C. IBM Director via LAN
D. Automatic shutdown/restart
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-671   certification 000-671

NO.17 When comparing the high availability features of the xSeries 235 and xSeries 255
servers, which feature is a standard feature of the x235 ONLY?
A. Chipkill memory
B. Active PCI-X support
C. Hot swap hard disk drives
D. Integrated RAID-1 support
E. Integrated systems management processor
Answer: D

IBM   000-671   000-671   000-671 examen   certification 000-671

NO.18 When comparing the IBM ServeRAID-4Mx and ServRAID-4Lx adapters, which
feature is available on the ServeRAID-4Mx ONLY?
A. Ultra 160 SCSI
B. Dual Address Cycle (DAC)
C. 64-bit PCI 2.2 at 66/33 MHz interface
D. 64 MB battery-backed ECC data cache memory
Answer: D

IBM   000-671 examen   certification 000-671   certification 000-671

NO.19 A Proxy server is an example of what server type?
A. Centralized
B. Client/server
C. Device sharing
D. Web
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-671   certification 000-671   000-671

NO.20 Ten members of the Research staff in a small company have individual dial-up
connections to the Internet. This is costing the company a lot of money. Which
server type would provide the BEST solution to reduce the cost of internet access,
and at the same time allow the company to better manage their wide area
connections?
A. A centralized file server with a single, high-speed internet connection, managed by a
member of the IT team who downloads the pages required by the Research Department.
B. A company-wide proxy server with a single high-speed internetconnection, providing
internet access to all staff in the Research Department.
C. A database server, using an off-line dial-up connection, which caches and sorts the
pages required by the Research Department
D. An HTTP server which downloads and mirrors the previous day page requests from
the Research Department
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-671   certification 000-671   000-671

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Code d'Examen: COG-480
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Planning Professional)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which aspect of the Waterfall approach makes it less appropriate to use for developing planning
applications?
A. There is no Analyze phase; the steps go from Plan directly to Design.
B. Steps are followed sequentially without returning to previous steps.
C. Technical constraints tend to overrule user requirements.
D. This approach can only be implemented using large teams.
Answer: B

certification IBM   COG-480 examen   COG-480   certification COG-480   COG-480

NO.2 Why does using a methodology increase the chances of a project being successful?
A. Requirements do not have to be documented before a project is started.
B. Requirements can be changed throughout the project lifespan.
C. Development follows predetermined phases based on proven practice.
D. Development must be completed within predetermined timescales.
Answer: C

certification IBM   COG-480 examen   COG-480 examen

NO.3 What is the benefit of using a methodology when developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution?
A. Allows accurate and complete development.
B. Allows development to be started before users are consulted.
C. Development can be done by less qualified consultants.
D. An iterative methodology can be used instead of waterfall.
Answer: A

IBM   COG-480 examen   certification COG-480   COG-480   COG-480

NO.4 What is the purpose of providing an initial delivery to end-users which addresses only 80 to 90% of their
needs?
A. The users will be content with a solution that addresses most of their requirements.
B. The requirements can be completely changed and still finished in time.
C. The solution can more easily be fine-tuned through iterative development.
D. The solution can be completed through sequential steps and in time.
Answer: C

IBM   certification COG-480   COG-480 examen   COG-480

NO.5 During the design phase of an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, the Planning and BI teams meet to
discuss the reporting requirements. Which proposed change must be discussed by the whole
implementation team?
A. The number of users who will consume reports based on Planning information.
B. The D-Lists that will be used to represent the measures in reports.
C. The D-Lists that will represent time in the planning application.
D. The number of users who will perform data entry into the planning application.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement describes how Proven Practices are created?
A. Proven Practice is driven by product management to provide strict guidelines for modelers.
B. Proven Practice is developed by a specialist team who understand how the products work.
C. A variety of teams input ideas based on how customers are effectively using the products.
D. Support personnel provide tips and techniques to customers to help them create effective models.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are designing a production planning solution with IBM Cognos 8 Planning. Units will be input by the
regional production managers. Production rates for each factory are set centrally and do not change.
What is the primary consideration for the designer?
A. How easy will it be to update production rates.
B. How easy will it be to input units.
C. How quickly can assumption data be input.
D. How quickly can the list of factories be updated.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You identify that last year's actuals will be used as a basis for this year's plan. This data resides in a
database and will be loaded into Contributor. The data is very sensitive and security is important to the
customer. What are two solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Load from a Cognos package using the database as a source.
B. Use an ETL tool to load directly from the database avoiding the Copy and Load process.
C. Use the standard Copy, Load, and Prepare process in the Contributor administration console.
D. Load into Analyst and then export to a flat file and Copy, Load, and Prepare into Contributor.
Answer: AB

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NO.9 When developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, when is prototyping most useful?
A. When the user requirements are unclear.
B. When the development team is very large.
C. When the client can afford the extra time and cost required.
D. When the solution is being implemented for a department other than Finance.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You implement an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution which fulfills the users' needs. Two years later the
performance of the Go To Production and Reconciliation processes take an unacceptable time to run.
What may have been overlooked in the original design phase?
A. the frequency that the planning process is run
B. the number of BI reports based on planning data
C. the increase in the number of e.List items with time
D. the volume of assumption data in the Analyst model
Answer: C

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